Scholar said:
There is very little 'wiggle room' in our chronology but more so in the history behind certain key dates but there is nothing we can do about that but for the apostates the problem is much greater because they use a chronology which has more than a 'wiggle' but 'gaps'- huge 'gaps' of at least twenty years. So I suggest that you get your own house in order before riculing anothers.
I notice that whilst you accept there is wiggle room in your chronology you have still not retracted your lie that "607 BCE is the only possible date for the destruction of Jerusalem according to the bible".
Not content with your existing lies, with admirable economy in the one sentence you introduce two more lies when you claim that 'apostates' use a chronology that has huge gaps. The first lie is that the chronology you disagree with is put about by 'apostates'. Every single qualified independent historian puts the destruction of Jerusalem at around 587/586 BCE, these are not people that 'apostates', who you hate so much, have any influence over. These are people that have studied history. The reason why they are so confident of this date is the mountain of archeological evidence, the most powerful being the mass of cuneiform writings representing every year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign, making any change to the length of his reign as required by your chronology completely impossible. The second lie is that there are 'huge gaps'. The only huge gap is between the archeologically attested and scientifically accepted date of 587/586 BCE and your fanciful theologically motivated date based only counting back 2520 years from 1914.
Honesty compells one to conclude that 538 BCE is highly improbable or impossible unless some speedy form of transport was undertaken. The more reasonable, rational approach is to weigh up all of the known scriptural, historical facts and add a little commonsense and Bingo! you have 537 BCE. Nice and Easy.
Honesty? Common sense? Reasonable? Are you serious?? You've proved many times that you haven't the foggiest idea of what honesty is, and only a passing acquaintance with common sense or being reasonable. You only wish to conclude that 538 BCE is highly improbable, even in the face of the historical and scriptural evidence, because it doesn't happen to fit your chronology. Maybe they did have speedy transport, why not, if that harmonises the evidence? Even without speedy transport, there does not seem to be that much difficulty in an advance group of exiles getting back to Jerusalem in the months following Cyrus' inauguration.
The methodology of calculating 1914 CE has remained unchanged only minor technical matters have intervened in making the 607/1914 scenario irrefutable despite the spurious nonsense of apostates.
Scholar, your pants are on fire and my, what's happened to your nose?
Regarding Dan 4
You need to distinguish between God's Sovereignty and God's Kingdom. Both of these terms are explicitly and implicitly stated in this entire chapter.
No, you are making an artificial distinction between the two. The scripture says at Dan 4: 34 "For His dominion is an everlasting dominion, And His kingdom {endures} from generation to generation." The two are synonymous. They are both permanent. There is not distinction made in this chapter between God's rulership and God's rulership towards the earth .
God has the right to rule and the power to rule
More than that, the scripture says God does rule, always rules; there is nothing in Daniel 4 to suggest that God's rule is ever interrupted, the exact opposite in fact.
and the time of God directly exercising his rulership by means of an installed Kingdom after the expiration of 'seven times' was also demonstarted
The scripture says no such thing. This is an interpretation, and a poor one. You say Nebuchadnezzar represents rulership by God over the earth. Nebuchadnezzar has his rulership removed by a greater power; who removes God's earthly rulership? Nebuchadnezzar unwilling relinquishes his rulership; does God give up his rulership unwillingly? Nebuchadnezzar has no hand in the restoration of his rulership; is God a mere pawn in some other power's hands? Who exactly is pulling the strings here? Or maybe God is schizophrenic. Nebuchadnezzar's authority passes to another for 7 times; does God's authority really pass to the gentiles? If so, why does God interfere to restore the Jews to their homeland? Why does he have the temple rebuilt? Why does he punish Babylon for its misdemeanors? Why does he intervene in any earthly way between 607 and 1914? Does God say one thing and do another? You say God's started to rule the earth at the end of the 7 times; what empirical evidence do you have that since 1914 the gentiles have had any less domination of the earth than in the previous 2520 years? It's as if Nebuchadnezzar had his sanity restored and immediately went off for a holiday. You say God's rulership was removed for 2520 years; what then was Jesus on when he said the "kingdom is in your midst"? Did he not realise this was breaking God's decree?
Still, you are entitled to your interpretation. Since Jerusalem was not destroyed in 607 BCE, you might instead want to look at the year 1934 as a better year to fit the 'prophecy'.
BFS