eggnog
What Russell actually stated was that "the full end of the times of the Gentiles ... will be reached in AD: 1914" after which the rule of imperfect men would begin to disintegrate.
A lie. Or an "untruth" if that sits better with your conscience. Which I doubt.
Russell NEVER said that after 1914 the rule of imperfect men would begin to disintegrate. You refer to a quote from a later (post-1914) edition of The Time is at Hand which was published after Russell's death. This has been pointed out several times now.
What Russell said was that 1914 would be "the farthest limit of the rule of imperfect men". Easily verifiable in a pre-1914 edition of The Time is at Hand.....
Question: Did Russell make a prediction?
Answer: Yes!
(Eggnog's answer: Absolutely not!)
Question: What did Russell predict?
Answer: Russell predicted that 1914 would be "the farthest limit of the rule of imperfect men." (The Time is at Hand, pre-1914 editions, p.76-77)
(Eggnog's answer: Absolutely nothing!)
Question: Was Russell correct in his prediction?
Answer: Not even close!
(Eggnog's answer: Yes! I mean no.. I mean yes!)
He didn't predict that 1914 would be the end of the Gospel age, which would culminate in Armageddon, followed by the beginning of the Millennial age and Christ's rule, did he?
Let's try this. If Russell did NOT believe that 1914 would be the "beginning of...Christ's rule" as you posit, then who did he believe would be ruling post-1914? Clearly, he did not believe it would be "imperfect men", since he predicted that 1914 would be "the farthest limit of the rule of imperfect men." So who did Russell believe would be ruling post-1914?