Hi Spook:
Jcannon has conceded the debate though he may not know it yet. He has disproven God for himself:
Not at all. Only YOUR restrictive definition of God, maybe. But not mine.
Arguments from ends vs. means do not apply to God. Being omnipotent, if God existed he can achieve any end result with no respect to means. It seems clear to me that from Jcannon's words that God has chosen suffering.
I don't agree. God has not chosen "suffering" only "TEMPORARY suffering." And I explained the alternative to "temporary suffering" is no life at all.
NOW you become GOD. There is a child whom you love. He is trapped with his foot caught under a railroad track. The train is coming. There is no time to try and hoist up the track. Your only choice to save the child is to quickly chop off his foot. If you do not, he will be killed. So, do you decide the pain of chopping off the foot is better than the child being killed. You are assured he will be killed so quickly by the train he will not suffer any pain whatsoever. What is the "benevolent" thing to do?
5. Therefore by internal incompatability, God does not exist.
OR, God is immoral as you say, which is really what you're saying, is it not? Either God doesn't exist, or if he does, he is immoral for allowing temporary suffering? So it is not: Does God exist or not, but is he hypocritical or "immoral" for allowing suffering? So you've lost your argument. We must now debate to what extent god is "immoral" or not, and it only is sufficient that I have the opinion that he is not. I will not counter your personal view that he is. Even so, we have established the potential existence of God, seen as immoral by some and not immoral by others.
Jcannon failed in his definition of a coherant idea of free will. In response to answer my question "What is Free Will free from?" He answers that it is free from "non-choice." I submit to the fairness of other readers that this is a double negative. Being free from/of a negative is nonsensical white-noise.
No it is not. It is the direct, mirror opposite. The lack of free will is the direct opposite of free will. It ended up a double-negative because of the way you phrased your question: What is free will free from? It is free from the opposite.: Non-choice. So the answer is valid. You may consider it "nonsensical white-noise" but you're not in a position to do that. Your only position is that you don't understand my response. If you know math or algebra then the concept of a double negative becomes clear to you: -1(-1*5)=+5
I am also concerned with Jcannon's retreat to solipsistic subjectivism as seen later in his replies. Jcannon ironically takes a solipsistic stand affirming the value of the subjective and then sets up a false dilemma whereby I am challenged to disprove that inner state. This is nonsense.
Lame excuse to disprove, accepted.
In so far as the external data are concerned, the challenge hereby presented could easily be addressed by the existance of any argument for the equifinality of similar photos. The argument from Indistinguishables relates to the fact that there are thousands of such claims by UFO junkies, big foot fans, radical Islam and Mother Theresa to name just a few.
INVALID. YOU have to demonstrate this. That is, show a PHOTO of cloud imagery that matches a similar published image 10 years earlier. If this is so common then you should have no problem demonstrating this. But you also have to show CONTEXT to something like the Bible which was written 1900 years earlier. Here is the focus of my argument.
1. The Bible says there would be a sign.
2. It says the sign would appear in the heaevn.
3. The Bible dates that sign occurring "Immediately after the tribulation of those days.." meaning after the Holocaust.
4. The sign has the effect of causing those who see it to "beat themselves in lamentation", which is what one does over the death of someone.
So the SIGN has to meet the above context.
5. The image that showed up in the photo was taken at a specific time related to the photographer of the previous appearance of the sign, that is, December 26 in the late afternoon. The sign was "suspected" because this was the 7th anniversary of the second coming, inclusive. Seven is a focal number pattern in the Bible. The photos were taken and the resultant imagery appeared.
6. The imagery is specific to the context of the second coming as the black, prodigal son. The divinely inspired artistic "concept" of this is a close-up of the face of a black infant with his eyes closed. This represents the dead black prodigal son.
Notice how this reflects the context of the Biblical reference that those seeing the sign would beat themselves in lamentation. BUT...
7. This sleeping black child's face in the hand of Jesus beside a flying bird figure is no COINCIDENCE in the "Revelation" Book. Or do you think it is? If it is not, then it only means others not only have seen the same imagery, but related it to the "sign of the son of man" that is, connected it directly with Christ, which is the direct connection in the Revelation Book since the sleeping black face appears in the very hand of the messiah next to a bird.
So THAT is what you have to come up with: A 1900-year old prophecy about a sign in the heavens, which turns out to be cloud imagery, that is specific enough to have been printed in a book prior to a photo of that sign. Then you have to show in the Bible where UFO's are supposed to appear at a specific time in fulfillment of Bible prophecy. Please list those scriptures. Thanks.
Furhtermore, from confirmation theory, most of these have been soundly disproven as supernatural.
Mine hasn't. You can't summarily dismiss something I'm claiming is new and UNIQUE by deciding to categorize it generally into something entirely unrelated. Sorry. Nice try but no-go.
So, no Jcannon, I do not have the burden of proof in this issue of internal subjective experience.
Yes you do if you want to continue to say that the God experience is 100% internal. Your backing out of this means YOU CAN'T and therefore you have no basis to claim my God is not real.
The burden is squarely on Jcannon's shoulders to affirm the value of his experience. All we've seen so far is a description of the experience in fairly loose terms.
I've already given my PROOF. I showed you two things:
1. A photo of the sign.
2. The reference to that sign in the Revelation Book.
You have not commented SPECIFICALLY on why that is irrelevant, or common, or nonspecific, or anything.
So, PLEASE: What do you think?
1. Do you think the image in the Revelation Book is similar to the cloud imagery?
2. Do you think they are possibly related?
Just curious?
So, Jcannon is again requested to return to the original questions and consider the conclusioins above.
Progress has been made. Here is my summary:
1. The TRUE issue is not whether or not there is a god, but whether or not if there is a God he is not pure Good but, in fact, bad or "immoral", specifically because he allows temporary suffering in the world of mankind.
2. That some persons who believe in God, like myself, do not have a completely internal experience with God, some of it is external. This was not addressed but waved off as we do UFO sightings. Not good enough. You have a specific, not general, presentation of direct evidence which means you can directly investigate and dismiss this as a fabrication or nonspecific or whatever. But you don't, not that you can. So your internal God argument is disproven.
Thanks! I enjoyed the discussion!
As a final word on the true issue: Is God a cruel god for allowing suffering? My position is that he allows it as a necessary, temporary thing in order to serve the higher purpose of saving the life. We often cut off a limb to save a life. We are willing to suffer and lose parts of our beloved bodies if it will save the whole. So God thinks, given the choice of no life at all or eternal life with a period of temporary suffering, that the latter is more benevolent.
And I agree. Wholeheartedly!
Thanks for the discussion!!!
JC