ttwsyf:
There u go again with your wishful thinking that 99% is against "a god" rendering. It is not true. About 1 in 5 or 6 scholars explain John 1:1 in a way that u would not like. Even when they render it "God" they often explain there is a difference. Take the Net Bible for instance. Wallace, a main contributor of it, would translate it "God," because he is a Pentecostal trinitarian. However, he emphasizes the QUALITATIVE nature of the Word instead of making a case of identification as u are doing. In other words, though he prefers "God" as a rendering (as a trinitarian), he explains it should not be understood the way many folks (you ?) understand it. Robert Young translated it "God," but in his commentary he explains that the literal reading is "more lit. and a God (i.e. a Divine Being) was the Word." A Greek Grammar popular with universities all over says on Jn 1:1: "In such a construction, the subject and the predicate are not equivalent." (James Allen Hewett) Thus, it is wrong to insist that God and Christ are equivalent. So brother, check your facts carefully before committing yourself. It could be that u are running about looking for support from staunch trinitarians, instead of from more-open minded, more flexible trinitarians.
Two well known Catholic bible translators in Spain translate it "God," nevertheless, they explain in their commentary that "a God" is allowed and perhaps the preferred literal rendering. And so on... reads those links fully, since u are far from getting it. (New Spanish Bible)
As u are citing Rowley, it should be said that he said those words withing the context of fluid translations. In other words, most literal translations would not measure up either. Have u ever used NT versions such as the one by Kenneth Wuest? If u think that Rowley is right about wooden translations such as NWT, check that one out. Of course, Wuest is a trinitarian, so he might be "safe from your criticism."
Yes, ego eimi means basically "I am." But anyone who insists that it cannot be rendered in certain instances, such as the one in Jn 8:58 where an idiom is used with an adverb of time in the clause, indicating a rendering where the English perfect indicative is not only an acceptable rendering, but a more correct translation considering the idiom used. Check the Greek text and what grammarians explain before making claims that can make u look uninformed. Scholars are human and err. A case in point is that the great William Barclay condemned the WT claiming at one time that "a god" rendering is impossible as a Greek translation. Well, Barclay had to take his comment back when other scholars proved him wrong. He later admitted that "grammatically it is possible."
Oh, yes, since u seem to revere Mantey, let me say that what I wrote above is what Mantey explained in his grammar, with the exception he did not mention Jn 8:58 especifically, but similar scriptures with same construction. Again, it is in one of those links. By the way, I got the Grammar in my shelf. I have looked it up personally. Mantey was a Baptist, so he did not want to include Jn 8:58 with the group. By the way, Mantey was in awe of Charles B. Williams as a Greek scholar, his former Greek teacher. How do u think Williams translated Jn 8:58? Hint: He did not translated it as "I am." I will let u find that one out by yourself, because I get the feeling u would rather hear it from them.
By the way, why do u "hate" the NWT? We all can try to be a bit more impartial and see the good anywhere it happens.
My children are JWs, and I have suffered shunning not only from them, but from a legion of former "friends." My married daughter has never invited me to her house, which I have never seen. That is more than 9 years. It hurts! However, I can look beyond the anger that I sometimes feel toward the WT, and see the good side of it. And I enjoy using the NWT with my other bible versions. Chill out!
Blessings brother!