yogosans14: "Jesus is both Man and God."
Can you name just one scripture which confirms that?
yogosans14: "If Jesus is a god then isn't that polytheism? If Jesus is a god and Jehovah is the only true God is Jesus a false or true God? If he is a true God then he is NOT the only true God. If Jesus is not God then why does he tell people to come to him and not the father (Matt 11:28)?"
It seems you are attempting to use the term "god" with the narrowed definitions of Trinitarians. But the Bible shows the term "god" has a few more connotations than generally acknowledged by churchgoers:
The International Standard BibleEncyclopedia explains: “This word [elohim] can in fact, be used for other gods (Gen. 31:30) and even for men (cf. Ex. 4:16; 7:1; cf BDB, p. 43)."
Robert Young: " God—is used of any one (professedly) mighty, whether truly so or not, and is applied not only to the true God, but to false gods, Magistrates, judges, angels, prophets, etc ., e.g. Ex. 7:1 ; ... John 1:1 ; 10:33, 34, 35; 20:28 ...." – Young's Analytical Concordance to the Bible.
Was Moses a false god? Were angels false gods? Was Jesus a false god? No, they were not. The term "god" when used of anyone other than God conveys the sense that that someone is in a position of power, is godlike, or is serving as God's representative.
About John 1:1, although there is no hard rule, it should be noted that "when a Greek noun lacks the definite article, it normally will be translated as indefinite." ( A Primer of Biblical Greek) It is not shocking then to read "a god" in various versions of Jn 1.1c.
Harner showed that predicate nouns without the article normally are qualitative in nature. His study was so convincing that nowadays there is hardly any scholar insisting that such predicates are definite, turning around Colwell's earlier premise.
Of John 1.1, doctor BeDuhn had this to say:
" In John 1:1, the Word is not the one-and-only God, but it is a god, or divine being . I know
that sounds strange and even seems impossible coming from the pen of a Christian writer.
But thefact remains that that is what John wrote . His purpose in doing so was, at least in
part, to avoid the notion that God the Father himself incarnated as Christ. The one who
incarnated was somehow distinct from ‘God’ while still being 'a god.' " Truth in Translation.
yogosans14: "If Jesus is not God then why does he tell people to come to him and not the father (Matt 11:28)?"
Jesus never said others should never go to the Father and only to him. He asked his disciples ‘to come to him’ to find relief from the many heavy religious burdens being imposed by religious leaders. Jesus was sent by God with a mission of the salvation of men. The Jewish people as well of the rest of the world needed to recognize that Jesus was ‘the way to the Father.’
This fact can remind us of Moses when as mediator between God and Israel said: " Moses answered him [Jethro], ‘Because the people come to me to seek God's will.’ " (Exodus 18.15) Does this account prove Moses was God?
Polytheism was never an issue when powerful men acted on behalf of God, not even to Jesus, God's Son. (John 10.33-36)