HowTheBibleWasCreated:
I will briefly address the issues I was able to grab (The others were not clear to me).
John 8:58 as it's rendered in NWT is not a biased translation. It responds to both Greek and English idiom.
For example: Genesis 31:38 literally says in Greek LXX (Jacob to Laban): "These mine twenty years I am with you." How would an English speaker render those words into English?
John 8:58 has a similar Greek construction. In Ge 31.38, Jacob's statement contains an expression of past implications (These twenty years of mine). So when Jacob in LXX adds "I am," the translator would have to take into account the present verb used (I am) combined with words of action that began in the past. Charles Thomson dealt with this Greek construction this way: "These twenty years that I have been with thee." Thomson was correct in doing this.
An English speaker cannot properly use a present verb to convey present action having begun in the past. In the Hebrew narrative Jabob's words lack a verb, like this: "This twenty year I with-you."
How do modern translators render this? With an English perfect indicative of course, even though there is no Hebrew verb used. And just as translators normally do with this type of Greek construction. It is at John 8.58 where Trinitarian translators want to handle this construction differently in their obsession to make Christ equal to God. If there is no temporal modifier extending to the past before "I am," then "I am" means "I am."
Which insertations would you condemn? The NWT additions at Colossians 1:16, where they added, other to "all things," Or the one at Col. 1:17, where Trinitarians translators add "else" to "everything else"? (Check ISV; TLB; and CEV)
Genesis 1:2, which rendering is worse for you for the Hebrew w e ru'ach ?
"the breath of God" (Thomson)
"and God's wind" (Common English Bible)
"God's active force" (NWT)
"the power of God" (Good News Bible)
"the rushing-spirit of God" (Fox)
I like all of the above for Ge 1:2.