As leaving_quietly aptly observed, both the WH and TR Greek texts read similarly.
The professor, as it true of most Trinitarians, want to make theós in Jn 1.1c the subject of the clause. He says the Greek requires it. It does not. He even said so, when he said ‘unless the context requires the indefinite article, the noun theós should be rendered without one, as if it was the subject.’ Colwell said something similar about the context.
The subject in Jn 1.1c is the Word, not theós. I will give u two reasons: First, the Word Logos has the article before it, indicating it is the definite subject, and theós does not. Normally, in Greek, nouns placed before the verb are indicative of character or quality, not personality. Even Colwell admitted that nouns in this emphatical position may rule out his grammatical rule that they must be definite.
Secondly, this verse speaks of two individuals (the Word was with the God), so by ommiting the article before theós in the third clause, the noun becomes adjectival, and having the Logos with the article makes it clearly the subject. The Logos was the one with God.
The same grammatical structure is found in Acts 28.4, where virtually all translations render the similar noun with an indefinite article.
Literal Greek of Acts 28.4, "murderer is the man." Compare this with: god was the word." The man (Paul) is said to be, supersticiously, by the islanders, "a murderer," (NOT the murderer, or Murderer) for having survived a viper bite. They are describing the kind of man Paul must have been for not swelling up from the bite. The same with Jn 1.1c.
New American Bible (Catholic): "This man must certainly be a murderer."
NIV ("Evangelical"): "This man must be a murderer."
Thus, providing the list of scholars in the website, "Let us reason" only proves that most Trinitarians agree with the professor at John 1:1c. However, I bet those same Trinitarian scholars will accept the fact that in Acts 28:4 the noun before the verb and subject, should be rendered with an indefinite article. Why? Simple! Christ is not involved in the description, so they can see normal Greek grammar at work, but at Jn 1.1, they cannot see it. It's all about theology, not grammar!
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