Clambake: "An author I found interesting was Daniel B Wallace and he focuses more on
98% of the bible was is the same instead of the 2% that is different....JWs are really trying
to disprove the bible. Once you start to think of the bible in terms of context and probability
from a mathematical point of view, mainstream Christian beliefs are pretty much what the
bible teaches. Pay them no mind. Same with this wonderment poster. He is a bible burnout
who has fried his brain."
Do you know that Daniel B. Wallace has explained what I have stated before in regards to
a Greek construction (as that found in John 8.58), having a Greek "progressive present" verb
in the presence of a temporal indicator, the English present perfect is normally called for in translation.
Wallace wrote under (Present of Past Action Still in Progress):
“The present tense may be used to describe an action that, begun in the past, continues in the present. The emphasis is on the present time. Note that this is different from the perfect tense in that the perfect speaks only about the results existing in the
present time. It is different from the progressive present in that
it reaches back in time and usually, if not always, has some sort of
temporal indicator, such as an adverbial phrase, to show this
past-referring element ...
The key to this usage is normally to translate the present tense as an English present perfect …Luke 15:29 τοσαῦτα ἔτη δουλεύω σοι [tosauta etē douleuō soi] I have served you for these
many years 1 John 3:8 ἀπʼ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει [ap' archēs ho diabolos hamartanei]
the devil has been sinning from the beginning.” (The Basics of New Testament Syntax,
pp. 222-3. Italics and bold letters his. Underline and brackets mine.)
Let look at two texts:
In Luke 15.29, the Greek literally says:
"Look! So many years I am slaving to you..."
"[Look!] I have served you for these many years" - (Wallace's translation)
In 1 John 3.8, the Greek says:
"because from beginning the Devil is sinning."
"the devil has been sinning from the beginning.” - (Wallace's translation)
So in effect, Wallace understands this construction similarly to grammarians Hardy Hansen
& Gerald M. Quinn previously quoted:
“When [the present is] used with expressions denoting past time, the present is the equivalent of the English present progressive perfect."
Consider too that although many Trinitarians are confident the "I am" expression issued by
Christ is surely linked to Exodus 3.14, not all agree. One such scholar, James White, is an Evangelical who defends the Trinity with passion before Jehovah's Witnesses, but came to this conclusion:
“It could fairly be admitted that an immediate and unqualified jump from the ego eimi of
John 8:58 to Exodus 3:14 is unwise.” (“Purpose and Meaning of ‘Ego Eimi’ in the Gospel of
John In Reference to the Deity of Christ.”)
Another scholar, C. K. Barrett, who served as Professor of Divinity in the University of Durham, concluded:
That the Jews' reaction in verse 59 "does not mean that Jesus
had claimed to be God.” (The Gospel According to St. John) I will say this: Not everyone has the same understanding of things
relating to a particular scripture. And that is true even among
Catholics and Protestant believers. The challenge then, is to analyze
the various available explanations to see which ones fit better with
Jesus' own simple statements... "I live because of the Father";
"I am God's Son." (John 6.57; 10.36)