PSacramento wrote- A translator, any translator, is "allowed" to translate what is in his or hers best opinion the correct meaning of the text.
Yes, I agree that translations are to be the translators best opinion, but that doesn't change the fact that 'ego eimi' never translates to 'I have been' any where else in scripture.
Jesus said 'I am' as a claim of being equal to God. That fact is confirmed by the Jews around him wanting to stone him for blasphemy. Why would anyone [let alone a group] want to stone him for saying 'I have been'? Besides blasphemy, Mosiac law allows stoning for acting as a medium/fortune teller [Lev 20;27], false prophesying [Deut 18;20], leading others to idolatry [Deut 13;5-10], offering children to Molech [Lev 20;2], being a rebellious or stubburn son [Deut 21;18-21], and types of sexual behaviour [being a whore, etc] [Deut 22;21-24]. Was Jesus guilty of one of these crimes? There is no question that the Jews were about to stone him for anyelse other than blasphemy.
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