Well done TWM. Explained clearly. It may not mean that Jesus is God, but it does mean that John says he is in His written gospel of Jesus.
There is a Greek linguistic rule which confirms your analysis.
I think it's called Glanvilles Sharp Rule, but I may have the rule name wrong.
I hope this OP is a catalyst for others who consider themselves to be bible students to look at more scholarly sources for their research as opposed to limiting their sources to one questionable source.