aChristian says that Christians who believe that the Bible teaches that the flood was global look foolish, and that we should believe that God flooded only the “land of Noah.”
Let me list just two of the many problems I have with the notion that the Bible teaches that the flood was local.
1. Why Didn’t the Genesis Writer Tell Us?
11 Now the earth was corrupt in God’s sight and was full of violence. 12 God saw how corrupt the earth had become, for all the people on earth had corrupted their ways. 13 So God said to Noah, I am going to put an end to all people, for the earth is filled with violence because of them. I am surely going to destroy both them and the earth. (Genesis 6:11-13)
If “the earth” that’s corrupt in the passage above is really just “the land of Noah,” then why didn’t the Genesis writer say so? Wouldn’t most readers take the writer’s words at face value, and assume he was referring to “all the people on earth,” and not just all the people on the land of Noah, wherever that is?
God, who is infinitely intelligent, would have known how we would have interpreted his writer’s words, so if God really wanted us to know the Word of God, then God would have directed his Bible writer to tell us that only the “land of Noah” was corrupt, not the rest of the world, and only that land was to be flooded, wouldn’t he--if that's really what he wanted us to know?
2. Just the Heavens Above the Land of Noah?
I am going to bring floodwaters on the earth to destroy all life under the heavens (Genesis 6:17)
All life under the heavens? This is not how one describes a limited region of land, is it? Would not the all-wise God know that we would have assumed that he was talking about the whole earth under the whole heavens? Would this all-knowing God really have expected us to imagine that he was talking about just that patch of the heavens above the land of Noah, especially since he never gave his readers the slightest hint anywhere that he had any kind of limited land area involved?
Furthermore, wouldn’t God want us to know the location of the only land and its people flooded by God out of existence, if the flood was indeed local? Why didn’t he say the region he destroyed was, say, between the Tigris and Euphrates Rivers, if the flood was really local, instead of saying it was somewhere "under the heavens"?
Joseph F. Alward
"Skeptical Views of Christianity and the Bible"
http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html