Posts by JosephMalik

35

Did Jesus rise from the dead with 1.His physical body (or) 2. As a spirit

by jesusisgod in

please post your view, then some scriptures to back it up.

then look at what the bible has to say.. my view is simple.

jesus did rise from the dead with his physical tangeble body and he had the marks to prove it.. my scriptural proof are as follows,.

JosephMalik

JesusisGod,

Both so I call it the hypostasis of Christ. The was a trinitarian term but it can also be used in its generic form. Jesus was restored to life as a non-human just as he was before he became flesh. This was in answer to His prayer: Joh 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. Once restored to such life and as the creator of man Jesus could now raise His own body as promised which you already have shown. Another verse that will show he could do this is: Joh 10:18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. From this time on our Lord could use whichever nature He chose and He would need them both to accomplish His mission. We see Him addressed both ways in scripture. So Paul witnessed the non-human nature during his selection as apostle and we will witness His human nature again when He returns to administer His Kingdom here on earth. It however be the immortal human nature of Christ that concerns us as this is what is promised for us all.

Joseph

40

"In all the congregations let the women keep silent."

by senoj53 in

at 1 corinthians 14:33-35 paul writes;.

"in all the congregations let the women keep silent, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the law says.".

if in fulfilment of joel's prophecy god's spirit was poured out on both men and women at pentecost 33 ce giving them the ability to prophesy, why did paul say that women should keep silent?.

JosephMalik

Leolia,

I know there is a lot of opposition to the views I expressed. Men prefer that it teaches that they can dominate women. But I did not make this up. Looking at 1 Cor 8:1 and checking some notes written by others I found:

Peoples New Testament: As touching things offered unto idols. Corinth, like all Greek cities, was full of temples to heathen idols. At their altars victims were constantly sacrificed, the flesh of which was afterwards eaten. The question arose whether a Christian could eat of such flesh without the sin of showing deference to an idol. Perhaps the letter to Paul (#1Co 7:1) had asked about this matter.

Poole: Ver. 1. The apostle proceedeth to a new argument, about which the Corinthians had wrote to him, viz. about the eating of meat offered to idols.

So others recognize that Paul was following their letter and responding to it as he read along. To get them ready for this attack on their biblical positions Paul spent a lot of time from Chapter 1 to chapter 6 setting the stage for what would follow. This introduction to them some of which you have shown was very powerful and in it Paul established his position and views of the faith while revealing their flaws. 3:10 According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon. 11 For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ. They had flaws building on other foundations and He had to be tough to refute teachings like this one they offered which we still find churches supporting: 1 Cor 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God. This was a Corinthian doctrine and not truth. Paul had to take it out in this chapter by saying: 11 Nevertheless neither is the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord. 12 For as the woman is of the man, even so is the man also by the woman; but all things of God. That doctrine is now GONE. Paul taught equality between men and women so their doctrine of headship was shot down. And he took them to the cleaners on how they handled the Lord’s evening meal. Since you have shown other possibilities then the consideration of another view should not come as a shock to anyone. In some cases it is like reading between the lines since Paul also comments on the letter in places but does not quote it. They know what they wrote and all he had to do was put the material in perspective. It is a great letter, almost as if he was on his own 1st century internet or bulletin board responding to their letter the way we do here.

Joseph

40

"In all the congregations let the women keep silent."

by senoj53 in

at 1 corinthians 14:33-35 paul writes;.

"in all the congregations let the women keep silent, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the law says.".

if in fulfilment of joel's prophecy god's spirit was poured out on both men and women at pentecost 33 ce giving them the ability to prophesy, why did paul say that women should keep silent?.

JosephMalik

His selection of Paul was a sort of rebuke to His brothers, you think?

Sylvia,

They selected Matthias presumptuously. Luke made this clear as he pointed out such problems in the faith that others ignored. After all he did this on Paul's behalf because of all the problems that resulted from it and Luke supported Paul at the time. Luke made all the problems with the Jerusalem congregation, the letter to the Gentiles and Paul's battle with them into a historical record. Galatians also contains some of the story and proves this point. But our Lord would not correct matters immediately. He gave them and the faith time to grow. They should have known that only Christ can choose an apostle. He made this clear to them but they did not pay attention. Notice: Joh 15:16 Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you. Now when a suitable candidate became available, one that would make the necessary impression on them all our Lord acted. I never thought of it in terms like rebuke. But it does show that Jesus was in charge or this new found faith and not the apostles. Thus Paul became the 12th apostle that our Lord selected and Paul gave a remarkable account of how he was grafted in historically. But many still argue about who was who today just like they do on many other matters. It depends on each of us to do your own study and determine the truth for ourselves.

Joseph

40

"In all the congregations let the women keep silent."

by senoj53 in

at 1 corinthians 14:33-35 paul writes;.

"in all the congregations let the women keep silent, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the law says.".

if in fulfilment of joel's prophecy god's spirit was poured out on both men and women at pentecost 33 ce giving them the ability to prophesy, why did paul say that women should keep silent?.

JosephMalik

Do you think James' dislike of Paul stemmed from the fact that Jesus selected Paul while ignoring James, His own brother?

Sylvia,

Both men had a lot of power. Paul could heal, raise the dead, had support in Antioch and other places and saw Jesus miraculously. James had genealogy (very important to Jews) and thousands of Christian Jews on his side. Fighters willing to die or kill Paul over the law. It could have been a power struggle for leadership. But it all revolved around keeping the law, often simply called circumcision. The letter James wrote to the Gentiles still included works of law so he still was keeping his toe in the door on this one. But the letter was subtle and Paul's did not see its hypocrisy until years later when the problem still persisted with James and the Jews. Acts 21:25. Therefore we can see why Jesus did not pick James or any of his brothers since they all went with James.

Joseph

40

"In all the congregations let the women keep silent."

by senoj53 in

at 1 corinthians 14:33-35 paul writes;.

"in all the congregations let the women keep silent, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the law says.".

if in fulfilment of joel's prophecy god's spirit was poured out on both men and women at pentecost 33 ce giving them the ability to prophesy, why did paul say that women should keep silent?.

JosephMalik

Did anybody get a chance to understand the Bible texts correctly before you came up?

That's admittedly an ironical question and at the same time a serious one.

Narkissos,

Too bad you feel that way but it gave me a good laugh. I am sure they did but the Catholic church and other mainstream denomination controlled much of what we are taught today. Many are still purging their teachngs as we write. You can say the same thing about the Trinity and why are so many still teaching it? James wrote his letter of apology such as it was for such a proud man so he finally got it. We can say that he figured it out before I did.

Joseph

40

"In all the congregations let the women keep silent."

by senoj53 in

at 1 corinthians 14:33-35 paul writes;.

"in all the congregations let the women keep silent, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the law says.".

if in fulfilment of joel's prophecy god's spirit was poured out on both men and women at pentecost 33 ce giving them the ability to prophesy, why did paul say that women should keep silent?.

JosephMalik

Journey-on,

Sure, and no need to feel bad. I had the same problem with Paul for many years. When it all finally cleared up it turned out to be nothing more than a problem with punctuation and style. And notable scholars get it wrong as do most denominations. Strange since it is only necessary to read it more carefully. Translators did not help either and make it look bad for Paul. But when I saw that even James the main instigator of this theology wanted Paul to take Nazarite vows to prove he still kept the Law and that Christian Jews that supported James tried to kill Paul, the light started to go on. Then it all made sense. Takes a little time and effort.

Joseph

P.S. You know that Jesus did something much like Paul did when he used the Samaritan woman to preach the good news which the apostles would have not approved of. This should have been enough of a lesson for them but they and the Jews still did not get it. So the problem went on for over 40 years and in many congregations today is still going on. No wonder He had use Paul instead of one of His own disciples to replace Judas. The apostles failed Him on this one and it took Paul to correct Peter, John and James who finally got the message after several tries.

JM

40

"In all the congregations let the women keep silent."

by senoj53 in

at 1 corinthians 14:33-35 paul writes;.

"in all the congregations let the women keep silent, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the law says.".

if in fulfilment of joel's prophecy god's spirit was poured out on both men and women at pentecost 33 ce giving them the ability to prophesy, why did paul say that women should keep silent?.

JosephMalik

HTA

Yes and it was the philosophy of many such Jewish Christians in Corinth. So Paul tried to put a stop to it. And their were some Gentile beliefs in the letter as well such as their belief in astrology. We see this in chapter 15. Paul kicked all that in the butt as well but what happened? He gets the blame for teaching what they were actually doing. He did this in other places in this same letter as he covered their remarks commenting as he read along. You will also see that he did this or something similar in nearly all his letters as the problem existed everywhere he taught. This is why he appointed overseers and used men like Timothy to do the same. Letters did not have the same impact as someone appointed so he turned their own lingering Jewish beliefs against them in this way.

Joseph

40

"In all the congregations let the women keep silent."

by senoj53 in

at 1 corinthians 14:33-35 paul writes;.

"in all the congregations let the women keep silent, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the law says.".

if in fulfilment of joel's prophecy god's spirit was poured out on both men and women at pentecost 33 ce giving them the ability to prophesy, why did paul say that women should keep silent?.

JosephMalik

Hello Steve,

He didn't! He was refuting the letter the Corinthians wrote to him as shown in 1 Cor. 7:1. He commented and sometimes quoted from it as he did here. So when you see the personal pronoun "I" in 1 Cor. it does not always stand for Paul. Sometimes it is simply a direct quote from the letter the Corinthians wrote to him. This is hard to pick out unless you are carefully following along and most people get it wrong. Paul wrote just like we do here on this board picking words or phrases to comment on and we should be experienced enough to recognize this. What is really remarkable about this verse is how he kicks their butts with a single letter translated What! Notice: 36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only? He therefore takes them to task in no uncertain words. Paul was for women's rights not against them. Hope this helps.

Joseph

14

The Bible VS. The Word of God

by writetoknow in

many elevate the scriptures (new world translation, etc.

) and the accurate knowledge of as greater then the word of god.

subsequently, putting their faith in the men that interpret the bible for them.

JosephMalik

I am sharing them because I believe they are correct,

Writetoknow,

Well I took the time to look at the material and the home page you suggested and find that the material is far from correct. It is vague, unsupported, philosophical and inaccurate as even you pointed out. The material is in conflict with a pre-human existence which by your own admission is not accurate. Even if this is the work of someone else, you should at least be aware of the fact that we cannot absolve ourselves for this reason. At it says clearly that: Mt 12:37 For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words thou shalt be condemned. It does not matter where the source of such words may have originated. When we decide to offer them to others then they become our words and we take this responsibility upon ourselves. So be careful with such material and test it carefully. Even when it attempts to explain something as simple as the word of God it errs. Notice what is said about it here: 10 And he said, Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God: but to others in parables; that seeing they might not see, and hearing they might not understand. 11 Now the parable is this: The seed is the word of God. 12 Those by the way side are they that hear; then cometh the devil, and taketh away the word out of their hearts, lest they should believe and be saved. If the seed is the word of God then it is not limited to specific texts where only God speaks. The explanation is more complex than that. It sounds good if not given more careful scrutiny. This is also why the message of the kingdom while preached everywhere by every Christian is understood by few.

Joseph

14

The Bible VS. The Word of God

by writetoknow in

many elevate the scriptures (new world translation, etc.

) and the accurate knowledge of as greater then the word of god.

subsequently, putting their faith in the men that interpret the bible for them.

JosephMalik

When God speaks, it is the word of God. In the old testament God spoke directly to the prophets. He spoke to others through them.

Jesus is the supreme manifestation of the word of God.

When Gabriel spoke the word of God to Mary, Jesus was born in her.

Writetoknow,

From what I gathered based upon the above texts, you do not believe in a pre-human existence for Jesus called the Word in scripture. If this is not the case then please disregard these comments. The Church of God, Faith of Abraham for one has such a view. Many words are flexible and you give examples for how "word" is used in scripture but I did not see anything that indicated that it could also be used as an identity for someone that functioned in that capacity. A functional name or title would be another way to identify a real Being or entity such as the Word that literally and personally created the human race at God’s behest. So is it true then that God used other Beings, real living and non human entities to function in His behalf even identifying themselves by the name of God as if they were true God? To this I would answer yes! This is why it is said: 4 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. This is true because all other humans were personlly begotten by the Word in the beginning. Only the now human Word or human Son (even called God) was begotten by the Father and this exception was now duly noted. Such fine detail is often ignored but it was not in this case. We do not find God speaking directly to the prophets as you said here. What we do find is: 2 And the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed. And we find this and other such ways that God operates even accepting information gathered by others who report to Him. Job 1:6 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them. . . Job 1:8 And the LORD said unto Satan, Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil? Therefore we would expect to find that it would be a real living Being or entity of which it is said: Ro 8:34 Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.

Joseph