Tula,
I see you are trying. Good,
Joseph
Tula,
I see you are trying. Good,
Joseph
.
so what does this mean to you?.
and how would you apply this to the future as a revelation?.
Joseph....While we're on the subject of copying....the majority of scholars believe that the writers of Matthew and Luke had a copy or copies of Mark in front of them when they wrote their versions of the story.
Iron Rod,
It looks like not only Matthew and Luke but John also had copies of the others or a photographic memory when writing their Gospel account. The fills they contain are telltale signs of such knowledge. John is the champ when it comes to this. The fact that Matthew is like Mark however ends your argument. Time is not the reason as you imply. But it does strengthen Luke’s claim of being accurate. His use of the real words stated by Jesus when giving this prophecy shows that. The correction Luke also made about the sequence as to when the wine was offered also supports such an accurate description. Notice that Matthew also asked the reader to use discernment like Mark. He did not re-interpret as you say. This would not be required if the information came after the events you think are being discussed and required hind sight as you also put it.
Joseph
.
so what does this mean to you?.
and how would you apply this to the future as a revelation?.
Please note there is absolutely no mention of a "great tribulation" or "Daniel" in Luke. Luke clearly sets the events that would happen in 70 CE with the destruction of Jerusalem BEFORE the signs mentioned that would happen during the end times.
JCAnon,
Luke said no such thing and you have no verses to prove this point. I explained all this many times already. The historical generation covered in all three accounts is the same as part of the end times. They all point to His presence which is also the time for the resurrection. That is what they wanted to know and Jesus answered their question. You think that missing such words will make a difference and allow you to stretch this history over thousands of years. Well the end of the Gentile times kills that since they did not end at that time.
Joseph
i was wondering over this question when we came across a point that christians should not get involved with politics.
the account of john 6:14, 15 indicates that jesus refused the change to be made king of the jews.
therefore witnesses concluded that jesus don't want to get involved with political power or politics and so his followers should not get involve in politics.. but this conclucion seems very contradicting & quite suspecious, since jesus knows he will become king (a political figure) of not only to the jews but to the whole world in the future.
Dark_Angel,
Of course Jesus is involved in politics. Look: Col 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: 16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: 17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. Before becoming flesh He permitted such nations which turned out good and bad both near (visible) and far away (invisible) to exist as both common folk (earth) and leaders (heaven) so they could maintain order on this earth until it came time for Him to take over such rule. And his kingdom will involved politics as that is what happens when many individuals get involved in it. Even His apostles fought with themselves as to who would be the greatest in such a kingdom. Mt 18:1 At the same time came the disciples unto Jesus, saying, Who is the greatest in the kingdom of heaven? And they did this many times at the last supper to the point where He had to wash their feet to stop it. That should be proof enough.
Joseph
so one year of lots of questions and showing doubts, and missing quite a few meetings but still going out in service, doing mics, reading, hall projects...then i get the new light from society regarding the letter i sent them (wow, stunned me, blew me away) and i let them know how i felt about it and i quit the ministry after 40 active years.
nobody says anything about this, no counsel, no will you go out with us on saturday.
not a single "were is your time for the month" phone call.
Say oompa,
God Bless,
Joseph
.
so what does this mean to you?.
and how would you apply this to the future as a revelation?.
Iron Rod,
All three Gospel accounts contain nearly the same sentences. They are like other comments about the resurrection such as the ones in Paul's writings for example or others like them in Matthew chapter 25:31. Daniel described the facts differently but his message was also about the time of the resurrection. Why is it that no one puts it all together? The resurrection did not take place around 70CE. But insisting on that interpretation results in the meaning of these comments getting lost or taken to mean something else. This leaves them hiding in plain sight. The wars during 70 and 73CE were covered in the prophecy as were all other wars since then. Why insist on that view? Just because it steps on the toes of nearly every scholar in the world? They tend to copy from each other anyway so does that make them smart? Look at the Watchtower. They copy and change bad information constantly and few notice. Bad information keeps getting worse and millions believe it. That's the world we live in. When will any of us start solving such problems for ourselves?
Joseph
.
so what does this mean to you?.
and how would you apply this to the future as a revelation?.
And also, how do you see this as applying to the future? Do you have some idea of how it might be interpreted in a future scenerio?
Tula,
No. We will know when it happens, this much was promised, we are to hold our heads erect, but guessing was not part of the prophecy. The word Jerusalem however should not be taken literally for the city. It is part of the symbology for the faith at a future time. That much was shown by not using it in Matthew and Mark or Daniel.
Joseph
.
so what does this mean to you?.
and how would you apply this to the future as a revelation?.
That the events which either Daniel or the Gospel writers expected to occur after their respective "abomination of desolation" did not occur, doesn't necessarily mean that there is still another "abomination of desolation" to come. It may also mean that they were wrong.
Narkissos,
But I can also show that they were right. That is why Matthew and Mark referenced Daniel instead of Jerusalem as Luke did. Luke did not have to worry about his readers running to the mountains as the others did. So Luke could recount our Lord’s words literally for his readers. Matthew and Mark had to recount them symbolically using Daniel instead. Therefore their Jewish readers would not run to Masada and get killed anyway. This clearly moved the prophecy in time historically to the resurrection of Daniel for them which was far in the future and is the point of the prophecy anyway according to all three accounts. That the apostles did not quote Jesus word for word but interpreted Jesus sometimes to suit their expected readers is easy to show elsewhere as well. People keep saying things that they cannot prove as truth. So if they can do that so can I but at least the reasons given are sound ones. The resurrection is an integral part of all four accounts. They all teach something like this: 29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: 30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. This did not happen in 70CE and we are still waiting for it in our day. It should not be difficult to grasp something so simple and yet universally overlooked. All this talk about failed prophecies and second fulfillment's is all speculative and unprovable anyway and to me indicates someone has the wrong interpretation to begin with.
Joseph
.
so what does this mean to you?.
and how would you apply this to the future as a revelation?.
Narkissos,
I know that this is the view of many, but this does not mean that there is only one application for every historical period where it is under discussion. The history under discussion in chapter 12 is the same one during which the resurrection occurs. I read Carl's work where his application like yours applies much earlier. So it pays to take another look at it. I see no reason why it is not the same one described in Matthew and Mark since Daniel and this abomination was referenced there and that abomination did not take place at the time you describe. There was already a thread where I was able to show that it could not apply to 70CE as most think. That was simply another war in 70CE which continued to 73CE at Masada and there have been wars and reports of wars since so why insist upon it? Christ did not come then and is not present now. 70CE therefore was not a sign of anything that the faith should look forward to.
Joseph
.
so what does this mean to you?.
and how would you apply this to the future as a revelation?.
Tula,
Of all the times it is mentioned in the Bible this is the time that means the most to me: Daniel 12:11 And from the time that the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days. I believe that this is the same time and same abomination discussed in Matthew and Mark. The thing that makes it so important is its proximity to the resurrection of the dead. Just a few years away not lifetimes. And the daily sacrifice could be something very much like this network or others like it. That is about as far as I care to speculate. This has not happened yet and it is just a guess on my part.
Joseph