In short, my point is that much of what is specific to Matthew makes sense as a reply to Paulinism, especially in its "epistle to the Romans" form: is the Law still valid or terminated? does calling upon the name of Jesus as Lord save or is it a matter of what you do? What makes someone a child of God? On such questions "Matthew"'s stance is diametrically opposite to "Paul"'s -- this is also the case of the epistle of James but on the more limited issue of "faith vs. works" and from a different, Jewish-Hellenistic perspective.
Narkissos,
Sorry but I do not buy into this explanation that: Matthew"'s stance is diametrically opposite to "Paul"'s." Protestants can do and say whatever they want but Matthew did not disagree with Paul as you suggest. Matthew was written for Jews and did not have to elaborate for the benefit of Gentiles. So it could say: Mt 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. Now did that mean that the Law would continue as a vehicle for salvation after our Lord’s sacrifice which was when it was fulfilled? No! Italic comments or not it meant this: Mt 11:13 For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John. The days of John was when the Law would end. Not a precise date but a very precise generation marked by John in time. This is the same thing Paul was teaching. And all this business of works. The word meant different things to Jews and Gentiles. Jews took it as works of Law, sacrifices, cleanliness, vows, legal requirements written into the texts of Moses. This would no longer save them and was no longer required for salvation. Gentiles took it as their efforts in propagating the faith. Such works were of course a natural feature of such Faith and were of course required for salvation. Protestants get tangled in the contextual use of such words as did Jews back then and we may see many views offered but this does not mean as you say that: "Matthew makes sense as a reply to Paulinism, especially in its "epistle to the Romans" form: is the Law still valid or terminated?" What it does mean is: Mt 10:35 For I am come to set a man at variance against his father, and the daughter against her mother, and the daughter in law against her mother in law. This is because Christian Jews still did not all get it right and it pit them against each other which would take many years, in fact nearly all the years covered by all the NT texts to resolve. By the time John wrote it was still a crisis to the point that John called such teaching antichrist.
Matthew recorded that Jesus had a view of works that went like this: Mt 5:16 Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father which is in heaven. And with these Paul agreed for he said: 1Co 15:10 But by the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me was not in vain; but I laboured more abundantly than they all: yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me. This is why when Paul used "works" the more contextually driven word you see his writings turn negative because he usually meant works of Law and would say things like this: Ro 9:32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; His target was the Jewish Christian in Rome because they were still keeping this Law. He did this elsewhere as well such as: Ga 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified. And finally when James gave in and repented we see him now say: Jas 2:14 What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him? Jas 2:17 Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone. And so that we are sure what he now means: Jas 2:10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. Jas 2:11 For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. Jas 2:12 So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty. James changed his teachings over what we find in Acts chapter 15 and 21 and we can see it here in his letter to Jews scattered about. He targeted them for this reason. That this has caused a lot of confusion over the years leading to wrong conclusions is no surprise. But Matthew supports what Paul taught and disagrees with what Jewish Christians including some Apostles were doing for many years afterwards.
Joseph