As to the text under discussion, and especially the time connection14 ¶ But when ye shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing where it ought not, (let him that readeth understand,) then let them that be in Judaea flee to the mountains:
of the Jerusalem "great tribulation" and the "sign of the Son of Man," it is noteworthy that the typically Markan euthe ô s ("immediately") occurs in the extant text of Matthew (24:29), not in Mark!
Narkissos,
Such additions to the detail by a later version, especially one that may have been written after 70CE is quite normal. That generation, the generation of the abomination under discussion is the same one in both accounts which is not the generation of 70CE. The resurrection did not occur during the lifetime of either writer which is what they wanted to know and our Lord did answer their question. It supports the earlier version of Mark and verifies it’s accuracy in fact.
Narkissos said: It seems that the last redactional layers of Matthew, which did postpone the "end" sine die (cf. 28:18ff), did not cut out the traditions reflecting shorter-term eschatology (cf. the even more embarrassing 10:23).
I liked this comment. You put your trust in men that cannot think. Then it becomes proof for your views. But words like "I am with you" and "Israel" have a deeper meaning for the Faith under Christ as the proposed father of the human race. The only ones that should be embarrassed are the ones that offer such thoughts. You cannot get away from the fact that they wanted to know when the end would come. You cannot change time. This is simply another way to identify the resurrection. The word was not used but the reality of it was understood even as such a last day was understood by Martha. There was no resurrection in 70CE. The scholars were wrong. Too bad for them.
Joseph