What I mean is that the notion of "God" not being subjected to Jesus doesn't come up in that Scripture for me because 'God' doesn't appear in the Greek at that point, rather the words "He" or "The One" appear, and seeing as the previous verses referred to "God the Father", then I take these verses referring to "He" and "The One" to be referring to "God the Father" (which you claimed it did not based on a particular version rather than the original words of the Bible).
Some versions do choose to insert "God" in place of "The One" and "He" which is what actually appears in the Greek and they do so with the understanding that this poses no particular problem for the trinitarian viewpoint. Which can come as a surprise to many JW's and former JW's because they don't understand what trinitarians actually believe, because the Society has misrepresented the Trinity doctrine.