Response to TTTE.
1. Origin of the word divine:
Late Middle English: via Old French from Latin divinus, from divus 'godlike' (related to deus 'god').MORE Divine ‘godlike’ came via Old French from Latindivinus, from divus ‘godlike’ (related to deus ‘god’, source of Middle English deify).
Reference: http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/divine
Used as an adjective, the Oxford defines the word this way:
adjective (diviner, divinest)1Of or like God or a god:
And as a noun: (the Divine)Providence or God.
Translations by James Moffatt, Hugh J. Schonfield and Edgar Goodspeed render part of the verse as "...and the Word was divine."
An Orthodox Bible Commentary notes: "This second theos could also be translated ‘divine’ as the construction indicates "a qualitative sense for theos".
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_1:1
I cite that verse, not to sidetrack into that controversy, but simply to give an example of the use of the Englsih word, Divine, by some translators.
Therefore when you argue:
"Now Boyarin makes a fundamental mistake as almost all of us do when he said...
"What this text projects is a second divine figure, to whom will be given eternal dominion of the entire world. .
There is no second “divine figure” in view here as there is no first “divine figure” in view. He has wrongly used the word divine from our language to try to describe something from ancient Hebrew."
I ask simply, according to English usage, is the word 'divine,' out of place? I don't think that can be argued. All the English words that can be used, are English and not original.
What word do you think Boyarin should have used?