Not sure if you'll want to go:
https://www.facebook.com/video.php?v=682830445108335&set=vb.540191909372190&type=2&theater
not sure if you'll want to go:.
https://www.facebook.com/video.php?v=682830445108335&set=vb.540191909372190&type=2&theater.
Not sure if you'll want to go:
https://www.facebook.com/video.php?v=682830445108335&set=vb.540191909372190&type=2&theater
researchers say todays lord almighty shares many traits in common with the chimp deity, including color vision and omniscience.. .
berkeley, cachallenging long-held views on the origins of divinity, biologists at the university of california, berkeley, presented findings thursday that confirm god, the almighty creator of the universe, evolved from an ancient chimpanzee deity.. the recently discovered sacred ancestor, a divine chimp species scientists have named pan sanctorum, reportedly gave rise over millions of years to the lord our god, maker of heaven and earth.. although perhaps not obvious at first glance, there are actually overwhelming similarities between the supreme being of today and this early primate deity who preceded him, said dr. richard kamen, a leading biologist who also heads berkeleys paleotheology department.
the holy chimp moved around on all fours, but its descendants eventually began walking upright to expend less energy while foraging across the infinite reaches of the universe.
as jehovah's witnesses we committed ourselves to a blind belief in a monotheistic judaism that was automatically transmitted to a new religious organisation, started (we were taught) by jesus.. that's the premise which this thread will discuss.
i suggest that sufficient evidence is available to throw doubt on both those beliefs.
so this thread will argue (over about a week-hopefully) that:.
Response to TTTE.
1. Origin of the word divine:
Late Middle English: via Old French from Latin divinus, from divus 'godlike' (related to deus 'god').MORE Divine ‘godlike’ came via Old French from Latindivinus, from divus ‘godlike’ (related to deus ‘god’, source of Middle English deify).
Reference: http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/divine
Used as an adjective, the Oxford defines the word this way:
adjective (diviner, divinest)1Of or like God or a god:
And as a noun: (the Divine)Providence or God.
Translations by James Moffatt, Hugh J. Schonfield and Edgar Goodspeed render part of the verse as "...and the Word was divine."
An Orthodox Bible Commentary notes: "This second theos could also be translated ‘divine’ as the construction indicates "a qualitative sense for theos".
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_1:1
I cite that verse, not to sidetrack into that controversy, but simply to give an example of the use of the Englsih word, Divine, by some translators.
Therefore when you argue:
"Now Boyarin makes a fundamental mistake as almost all of us do when he said...
"What this text projects is a second divine figure, to whom will be given eternal dominion of the entire world. .
There is no second “divine figure” in view here as there is no first “divine figure” in view. He has wrongly used the word divine from our language to try to describe something from ancient Hebrew."
I ask simply, according to English usage, is the word 'divine,' out of place? I don't think that can be argued. All the English words that can be used, are English and not original.
What word do you think Boyarin should have used?
this is a subject of some importance, the view of the witnesses, likely inherited from franz's influence, seems to be that early christianity developed as a separate religion to the jews.. the view of most contemporary scholars is that the separation occurred slowly, and that influential early christians (e.g.
such as paul, peter, john and james) still saw themselves as jews.. to those of us that are no longer christians (and, most ex-witnesses here, seem to gradually move to that position) this is not an important issue.. but to an organisation that claims it has "the truth," surely it should know the truth about its origins.
yet the evidence is that the modern day religion of jehovah's witnesses, does not know the "truth" concerning the origins of early christianity.
Great story, CalebinFloroda. Thnx, for telling it here.
The biggest mistake (IMHO), is that standard (for lack of a better word) Christians including the standard JWs, is to assume that both first century CE Judaism and Christianity was homogenous and united in their belief systems. Of course, there were some common beliefs, but there were also some really wild beliefs also.
listen first:.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?t=30&v=wozgcyoi9l8.
this is an area of particular interest to me.
Listen first:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?t=30&v=wOzgCyoi9l8
This is an area of particular interest to me. One of the first realisations in my 'awakening,' was eth realisation that the Bible was plain wrong in the statement made at 2 Peter 2:12:
The KJV translates it as:
But these, as natural brute* beasts, ...
In the NWT (large study version), Freddy decided to say:
But these, like unreasoning animals ...
The NIV is similar:
They are like unreasoning animals
The RSV decided on:
these, like irrational animals, creatures of instinct,
Even 30 years ago, it was becoming evident, that the idea that animals could not reason (think) was wrong. And, if that idea, as expressed in the above verse, is wrong, then clearly the Bible is not inspired and the whole christian thingie is bullsh*t.
Since then, science has collected more and more evidence that the idea of 'unreasoning' animals is based on superstition, not evidence. I've posted on this from time to time.
Now, none of us will understand the gibbon 'talk' in the above video, but by a process of recording sounds, and watching reactions it became clear that different sounds meant different things, and the article in this link discusses the research that went into decoding gibbon-speak.
link: http://www.sci-news.com/biology/science-language-lar-gibbons-02683.html
--------------------
*The word that the KJV translates as 'brute,' is alogos with the essential English meaning of:
destitute of reason
See, https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/Lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=G249&t=KJV
hence 'unreasoning'
this is a subject of some importance, the view of the witnesses, likely inherited from franz's influence, seems to be that early christianity developed as a separate religion to the jews.. the view of most contemporary scholars is that the separation occurred slowly, and that influential early christians (e.g.
such as paul, peter, john and james) still saw themselves as jews.. to those of us that are no longer christians (and, most ex-witnesses here, seem to gradually move to that position) this is not an important issue.. but to an organisation that claims it has "the truth," surely it should know the truth about its origins.
yet the evidence is that the modern day religion of jehovah's witnesses, does not know the "truth" concerning the origins of early christianity.
Vidiot- I agree, and I noted last semester that it was likely a gradual process and that some scholars were talking about 200 years, and not the JW idea of an immediate split
Anyway, someone has gone to a lot of trouble with this "Evolutionery Tree of Myth and Religion:"
reference: http://rahoorkhuit93.wpengine.netdna-cdn.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/timeline-myth-religion.jpg
if you are in the uk check out an interesting new documentary series that starts on bbc2 at 9pm, this evening or catch up on iplayer.. from pleasure to sindiarmaid macculloch explores how christianity has shaped western attitudes to sex, gender and sexuality throughout history, beginning by examining how the early christians transformed intercourse from a biological necessity into a vice and from a pleasure into a sin.
the historian explains how greek ideas of sexual abstinence were adopted by the early christians, looks at how st paul, st jerome and st augustine developed increasingly negative ideas about sex, and tells the story of the rise of monasticism across the west.
doesn't matter what brand of christianity - this cartoon says it all:.
.
You liked that one-here's another. A bit more savage, I think, but pertinent.
this is not a new story.
the japanese military in ww2 were barbaric in the way they treated captured servicemen.
i was about ten when my father's best friend came home from a japanese prison camp.
Looking for something else just now, I came across this drawing:
Its from an American Journal and portrays the British Army in India executing captured Indian soldiers (after the Indian mutiny) by strapping them to the muzzle of a cannon and blasting them to bits. It was intended to scare the sh*t out of Indians.
Can't really be compared to what the Japanese military did, but the image demonstrates that unreasonable cruelty is not confined to one particular race or military.
as jehovah's witnesses we committed ourselves to a blind belief in a monotheistic judaism that was automatically transmitted to a new religious organisation, started (we were taught) by jesus.. that's the premise which this thread will discuss.
i suggest that sufficient evidence is available to throw doubt on both those beliefs.
so this thread will argue (over about a week-hopefully) that:.
True to the End18 hours agoI researched original Hebrew and Greek meanings of the various words used for God.
Thank you for going to so much trouble. TTTE.
Could I just change the perspective on that first line (just a little bit).
Can it be stated this way, that you researched the words, that the authors of the ancient document used, and which are often translated by the English word, 'god.'
I suggest that perspective, because our language is secondary to the original language.
I was planning next to post on the expressions, 'son of god' and 'son of man', which are sort of critical to the discussion, but I'll hold that for a few days, while we clear this bit. (Anyway, I must also produce an outline for a 5000 word essay, right now).
Do you think you could give an opinion on the word 'pelach' often translated 'serve,' but also holding the potential meaning of 'worship?'