Posts by aqwsed12345

  • Sea Breeze
    55

    Trinity Statements in the Dead Sea Scrolls

    by Sea Breeze in
    1. watchtower
    2. beliefs

    dr. ken johnson has identified several statements in the dead sea scrolls that predict that god would visit the earth as a man... as the messiah.

    .

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ljrfvytjhve&ab_channel=kenjohnson%28biblefacts%29 .

    1. aqwsed12345
    2. Sea Breeze
    3. peacefulpete
  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    The Trinity exposed


  • Sea Breeze
    55

    Trinity Statements in the Dead Sea Scrolls

    by Sea Breeze in
    1. watchtower
    2. beliefs

    dr. ken johnson has identified several statements in the dead sea scrolls that predict that god would visit the earth as a man... as the messiah.

    .

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ljrfvytjhve&ab_channel=kenjohnson%28biblefacts%29 .

    1. aqwsed12345
    2. Sea Breeze
    3. peacefulpete
  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    slimboyfat

    "Why doesn’t that count?"

    Because we take into account not only that there is a difference in theological background between the OT and the NT, the most important thing is that it was written in a different language, so here it is not necessary to look at the general sense in which "elohim" is used in the OT, but to whom and in what sense "theos" was used in the NT originally written in Greek. And it is decisive: no inspired biblical text originally written in Greek calls anyone other than the true God "theos" in a positive sense.

    "What Heb 1.4 says is that Jesus “became” better than the angels because he inherited a more excellent name than theirs."

    Hebrews 1 speaks partly of the supremacy which he already possessed from the beginning (meaning his deity), since he is the only one begotten of the Father, and on the other hand of the glory which he received only after his resurrection and ascension. The two are not sharply separated in the text, for example in verse 10 it is about the creation of the world, it was obviously before those mentioned in the verses 3-4: "made purification of sins", etc. So this part is about his glorification as a man, i.e. that after his resurrection and ascension he received the name "Lord" in terms of his human nature, this is what Philippians 2 is about.

    "On the other hand it makes no sense to talk about God himself “becoming” better than angels."

    However it makes perfect sense, if we confess not only the one-essence deity of the Son with the Father in the Nicene sense, but also his dual nature in the Chalcedonian sense, according to which he took on human nature at the time of the Incarnation and will no longer put it down. And what the Father did in relation to the Son, he did not "with himself", since we are not Sabellian modalists either. Here it is about how the Father glorified the man Christ.

    "Which manuscript are you saying had a full stop in John 1.1c?"

    The ancient manuscripts did not use full stops, commas, etc., and I did not claim that such an NT manuscript exists, but that this is how the Arians interpreted away John 1:1c.