@Duran
While Jesus never explicitly says, "I am the Creator," the New
Testament authors, inspired by the Holy Spirit, consistently affirm this truth.
Rejecting their testimony as "outsiders" is problematic because their
writings are part of the canonical Scripture, recognized as the Word of God. In
John 1:1-3 Jesus (the Word) is explicitly identified as the agent of creation.
This is not a vague statement but a direct affirmation of Jesus’ active role in the
creation of everything that exists. In Colossians 1:16-17 Paul, another
inspired writer, attributes all creation to Jesus. The phrase "all
things were created through him and for him" demonstrates both Jesus'
role as Creator and His divine purpose in creation. In Hebrews 1:2-3 the writer
affirms that God the Father created the world through the Son, and the
Son sustains the universe. Hebrews 1:10 speaks for itself.
Proverbs 8:30, which speaks of wisdom as a "master worker,"
is often interpreted by non-Trinitarian groups as referring to Jesus. However,
this passage personifies wisdom in a poetic manner, and its direct
application to Jesus is debated. Even if one assumes it refers to Christ, it
does not negate His role as Creator. Being a "master worker"
implies active involvement in creation alongside the Father. Moreover, if one
insists that Proverbs 8:30 refers to Jesus, it only strengthens the argument
for His divine involvement in creation, as the "master worker"
is not a passive observer but an active agent in the creative process.
Jesus often acknowledges the Father’s overarching authority and role, as
seen in Matthew 6:26. However, Jesus’ acknowledgment of the Father does not
diminish His own divine role. Instead, it reflects the relational dynamic
within the Trinity. 1 Corinthians 8:6 highlights the cooperative roles of the
Father and the Son in creation. The Father is the source of creation ("from
whom"), and the Son is the agent ("through whom").
There is no contradiction but harmony in their roles.
Dismissing John and Paul as "outsiders" misunderstands their role
as divinely inspired authors. Jesus Himself appointed the apostles and promised
them guidance through the Holy Spirit (John 14:26). Paul, though not one of the
original Twelve, was chosen by Jesus (Acts 9:15). Their writings carry the full
weight of divine authority and are integral to understanding who Jesus is.
The argument that Jesus never explicitly claimed to be the Creator fails to
consider the broader biblical witness. Jesus didn’t explicitly claim many
things in His earthly ministry, such as being the high priest or the
fulfillment of Melchizedek's order (see Hebrews 7), but these truths are
revealed in Scripture. Similarly, the apostles’ testimony about Jesus as
Creator reflects a fuller revelation of His identity.
The Trinity does not teach that Jesus acts independently of the Father.
Instead, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit work in perfect unity. Jesus as the
Creator does not diminish the Father’s role as the source of creation. Rather,
the Father creates through the Son (John 1:3; Hebrews 1:2).
You claim that Paul's statement in Galatians 1:12 refers only to the good
news and not to "the history of the universe." This is true insofar
as Paul's statement focuses on the gospel, but the gospel itself encompasses
profound theological truths, including the identity and role of Jesus Christ as
Creator. Paul’s revelation aligns with the rest of Scripture, which describes
Jesus' preexistence and divine role in creation (Colossians 1:16, John 1:3). To
suggest that Paul's revelation excludes such truths is an artificial limitation
not supported by the text. The gospel Paul received was a complete revelation
about Jesus Christ, including His preexistence, deity, and work in creation.
You state that Genesis 1:26 refers to Jehovah speaking to
"another," who you believe is the Son. However, the text explicitly
uses plural pronouns ("us," "our"), which suggests a
plurality within the divine nature, the Godhead. This plurality is consistent with the
Trinitarian understanding of God: one essence in three persons. Moreover,
Genesis 1 consistently refers to "God" (Elohim), a plural form in
Hebrew, which reinforces the concept of a plurality within the Godhead. The New
Testament clarifies that Jesus was actively involved in creation (John 1:3, Colossians
1:16). Genesis 2’s use of "Yahweh God" (YHWH Elohim) does not
exclude Jesus; it reflects the unified action of the Godhead. The separation and
sharp contrast between Yahweh and Jesus you propose is not supported by the
broader biblical context.
You argue that "firstborn" indicates Jesus was created, but this
misinterprets the Greek term prototokos (πρωτότοκος), which means
"preeminent" or "having supremacy." It does not imply that
Jesus is a created being. Instead, Paul uses this term to affirm Jesus’ rank
and authority over creation. The context of Colossians 1:16-17 dispels the
notion that Jesus is part of creation. If Jesus created "all things,"
He cannot be part of creation. To assert otherwise would contradict the text.
The title "Son of God" does not imply that Jesus was created. In
Jewish and biblical thought, "son" often denotes a unique
relationship rather than temporal origin. For instance, in John 10:30-33,
Jesus’ claim to be the Son of God was understood as a claim to equality with
God, prompting the Jewish leaders to accuse Him of blasphemy. Additionally Hebrews
1:3 and John 1:1-2 affirm Jesus' eternal nature and equality with the Father.
You claim that Genesis 2 does not mention Jesus as giving life, but the New
Testament provides the full picture. Jesus’ role as Creator and sustainer of
life is affirmed in John 1:4 and Hebrews 1:10-12. The assertion that the Father
alone created excludes the full biblical revelation of the Godhead’s unified
work in creation.
Trinitarians do not "elevate Jesus" to diminish the Father but
affirm what Scripture reveals: the equality of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit
within the one divine essence. The Trinity is not a contradiction but a mystery
grounded in biblical testimony. Your assertion that Jesus was created to
"make Him the Son of God" overlooks that Jesus is uniquely the
"only begotten Son" (monogenēs, John 3:16), signifying His
eternal relationship with the Father, not temporal creation.
You suggest that since God cannot die, Jesus cannot be God. The doctrine of
the Incarnation teaches that Jesus is fully God and fully man. While His divine
nature is eternal and cannot die, His human nature could and did experience
death. This is the mystery and beauty of the Incarnation: God the Son took on
human flesh to experience death on behalf of humanity (Philippians 2:7-8;
Hebrews 2:9). Even in death, Jesus’ divine nature remained fully active,
sustaining the universe (Colossians 1:17). His resurrection vindicated His
victory over death and affirmed His divine power.
The claim that Jesus did not resurrect Himself because He was dead, and you
interpretation of John 2:19-21 misrepresents both the biblical text and
theological understanding. Psalm 115:17 highlights that the dead, in their
earthly state, cannot engage in acts like praising God. However, this does not
address the unique situation of Jesus, who is not merely a human being but also
the eternal Son of God. Jesus’ resurrection is a divine act, one that He
explicitly claims in John 2:19 and affirms elsewhere in Scripture. His divine
nature (as God) is not subject to death, even though His human nature
experienced it. Therefore, while His human body was in the grave, His divine
power remained active, and He was able to raise Himself.
In John 2:19, Jesus explicitly says, “Destroy this temple, and in three
days I will raise it up.” While the Jews misunderstood this as referring to
the physical temple in Jerusalem, the Gospel clarifies that Jesus was speaking
about the temple of His body (John 2:21). The phrase "I will raise it
up" is a first-person statement by Jesus. If He didn’t mean He would
participate in His own resurrection, He could have said, "It will be
raised." Instead, He took ownership of the act. The claim that Jesus
didn’t predict His own resurrection simply misrepresents the text.
The context of John 2 and the consistent testimony of the Gospels indicate
that Jesus referred to His physical resurrection. His statement connects
directly to His bodily resurrection, as John explicitly clarifies in John 2:21.
Additionally in Luke 24:39 Jesus affirms His physical resurrection by showing
His disciples His physical body, not a spiritualized or symbolic resurrection.
In John 20:27 Jesus invites Thomas to touch His wounds, further demonstrating
the physical nature of His resurrection. The idea of a "spiritual
temple" is a theological concept tied to the Church as the Body of Christ
(1 Cor. 3:16), but it does not negate the literal, physical resurrection of
Jesus’ body. Your assertion that "Jesus' body was not raised"
directly contradicts multiple New Testament passages (John 20:27, Romans 8:11, 1
Corinthians 15:4, Acts 2:31). To deny the bodily resurrection of Jesus is to
contradict the core teaching of the New Testament and the faith of the early
Church.
The New Testament attributes Jesus’ resurrection to God the Father (e.g.,
Acts 2:24, Gal. 1:1), to the Holy Spirit (e.g., Rom. 8:11), and to Jesus Himself
(e.g., John 2:19, John 10:17-18). These are not contradictory but complementary
statements reflecting the Trinitarian understanding of God’s unified work in
redemption. Jesus, as God, has the authority to take His life and raise it up
again: See also John 10:17-18. Thus, Jesus’ resurrection is a Trinitarian act.
Jesus, being fully divine, has the power to take up His life again (John
10:18), demonstrating His equality with the Father.
In John 10:17-18, Jesus states that He lays down His life and takes it up
again by His own authority. He then adds that this authority is given to Him by
the Father. Far from undermining Jesus' deity, this highlights the unity and
harmony of the Father and the Son in the divine plan of salvation. The phrase, "This
command I received from my Father", underscores the relational order
between the Father and the Son in the Trinity. It reflects the Son's willing
submission to the Father, which is consistent with the Trinitarian
understanding: the Son and the Father are distinct persons but share the same
divine nature and will.
The statement, "I have authority to lay it down and authority to
take it up again," is critical. No mere human could claim such
authority over life and death; it underscores Jesus’ divine power. The phrase
shows that Jesus' death was voluntary and purposeful, not forced upon Him, and His
resurrection was not dependent on external forces but was an act of divine
power, which He possesses as God. This is consistent with other scriptures (John
2:19, Philippians 2:8-9). Thus, John 10:17-18 reinforces, rather than refutes,
the doctrine of the Trinity. The Son operates with divine authority, fully
aligned with the Father’s will. The "command" from the Father
is not evidence of inferiority but of relational distinction and unity within
the Godhead. Jesus’ power to take up His life after death demonstrates His
divine nature.
Paul’s reception of the Gospel directly from Christ in Galatians 1:12 does
not conflict with Jesus’ role as Creator or His resurrection power (Colossians
1:16, John 1:3). Paul’s theology consistently affirms Jesus’ divine nature and
creative authority. His role as Creator emphasizes His divine power, including
His ability to raise Himself from the dead.
You suggest that because Jesus says His authority was "given"
to Him, He cannot be equal to God. Additionally, you cite John 14:28, where
Jesus says, "The Father is greater than I," as evidence that
Jesus is ontologically inferior to the Father. In Matthew 28:18:Jesus declares
His universal authority after His resurrection, demonstrating His victory over
sin, death, and the devil. The phrase "has been given" reflects
His role in the economy of salvation, where the Son voluntarily took on human
nature and subordinated Himself to the Father’s will for the purpose of
redeeming humanity (Philippians 2:6-11). This voluntary subordination does not
negate His divine nature but rather underscores His humility and mission.
In John 14:28 the statement "The Father is greater than I" reflects
Jesus’ earthly ministry, where He operated in His human nature and voluntarily
submitted to the Father. In His divine nature, Jesus is fully equal to the
Father (John 1:1; Philippians 2:6). The Church has long affirmed that this
statement pertains to Jesus’ human nature, not a denial of His deity. The
doctrine of the Trinity teaches that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are
co-equal in essence but distinct in their relational roles. The Father sends
the Son, and the Son carries out the mission, which reflects an order of
operations (economy) but not an inequality in deity.
You argue that the statement "I and the Father are one"
(John 10:30) merely reflects unity of purpose and not equality in essence,
citing Jesus’ prayer in John 17 for believers to be "one." The immediate
context indicates more than unity of purpose. In verse 28, Jesus declares His
ability to give eternal life, a divine prerogative. In verse 29, He asserts
that no one can snatch His sheep out of the Father’s hand or His own hand,
demonstrating co-equal authority. The Jewish audience understood this claim as
a declaration of deity, as evidenced by their attempt to stone Him for
blasphemy (John 10:33). While John 17 does speak of believers being
"one," this is not in the same ontological sense as the unity of the
Father and Son. Believers share spiritual unity with God and one another, but
they do not share the divine essence. The unity between the Father and Son,
however, is intrinsic and essential, as Jesus is "the exact imprint of
[God’s] nature" (Hebrews 1:3).
You cite 1 Corinthians 11:3 ("the head of Christ is God")
to argue that Jesus is ontologically subordinate and not part of a co-equal
Trinity. This verse reflects the relational roles within the Trinity,
particularly during Christ’s earthly ministry. The Son willingly submits to the
Father in function, not in essence. The analogy of headship in 1 Corinthians 11
also addresses human relationships (man and woman), where headship implies
order, not inequality (Galatians 3:28).
The argument that Jesus having a "God" (as seen in John 20:17)
somehow disqualifies Him from being God Himself or part of the Trinity reflects
a misunderstanding of the incarnation and the relationship between the Father
and the Son within the framework of the Trinity. When Jesus refers to "my
God," it reflects His role as fully human during the Incarnation. In
the Incarnation, the Son took on human nature (Philippians 2:6-8), fully
experiencing the limitations of humanity, including dependence on and
submission to God the Father. According to John 1:14 Jesus, the eternal Word,
became fully human without ceasing to be fully divine. According to Hebrews
2:17 Jesus assumed a real human nature to accomplish His redemptive work. As a
man, Jesus perfectly exemplified reliance on and obedience to the Father,
modeling for humanity what a proper relationship with God should look like. His
acknowledgment of the Father as "my God" is consistent with
this role.
The Trinity teaches that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are
distinct persons who share the same divine essence. Jesus calling the Father
"my God" does not contradict His deity. Within the Trinity,
the Son eternally proceeds from the Father, not as a created being, but as an
eternal relationship of origin. This relational dynamic allows for Jesus, in
His human nature, to address the Father as "my God" without denying
His own deity. While equal in essence, the persons of the Trinity fulfill
different roles in the economy of salvation. The Son submits to the Father (1
Corinthians 15:28) to accomplish His mission of redemption, but this submission
does not imply inferiority in nature or essence.
The Bible repeatedly affirms Jesus’ divine nature alongside His humanity (John
1:1, Colossians 2:9, John 20:28). If Jesus were not God, His acceptance of
worship and the divine titles given to Him in Scripture would be inappropriate and
blasphemous.
Jesus’ statement in John 20:17 emphasizes two key truths. First, Jesus
differentiates between "my Father" and "your
Father." His relationship with the Father is unique as the eternal Son
of God, while the disciples are children of God through adoption (Galatians
4:4-5). Second, by calling the Father "my God," Jesus
emphasizes His solidarity with His human brothers and sisters. This reinforces
His role as the mediator between God and humanity (1 Timothy 2:5).
Jesus referring to "my God and your God" does not place
Him on the same level as His brothers in essence or nature. Instead, it underscores
that Jesus bridges the gap between humanity and God. He relates to the Father
as "God" on behalf of humanity while remaining one in essence with
the Father as God Himself. As believers, we worship the one true God, revealed
as Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Jesus’ words invite His disciples into this
shared relationship with the Father.
Thus, the statement in John 20:17 does not deny Jesus' deity but
highlights His dual nature as fully God and fully man. In His human nature,
Jesus acknowledges the Father as "my God," consistent with His role
in the Incarnation and the Trinity. This verse, far from disproving the
Trinity, fits seamlessly within its framework, affirming both the relational distinctions
and the unity of the Godhead.
@Earnest
The phrase in question reads:
"The God-loving Akeptous has offered
the table to God Jesus Christ as a memorial."
The inscription uses the dative forms, Θεῷ (Theō) and Ἰησοῦ
Χριστῷ (Iēsou Christō), to indicate the recipient of the offering. The
dative case and lack of a coordinating conjunction like καί (and)
strongly imply that Theō (God) and Iēsou Christō (Jesus Christ) are
being presented as appositional—that is, "God Jesus Christ." The use
of abbreviated sacred names with horizontal bars (nomina sacra) unites the
terms Θεῷ (Theō), Ἰησοῦ (Iēsou), and Χριστῷ (Christō) as a
theological formula referring to Jesus Christ's divine identity. This
abbreviation practice was prevalent in early Christian texts to denote sacred
terms.
The mosaic dates to approximately 230 CE, predating the Council of Nicaea
(325 CE) and thus serves as an independent witness to early Christian theology.
The clear ascription of deity to Jesus Christ in the inscription aligns with
early Christian practices and writings. For example, second-century authors
like Ignatius of Antioch explicitly referred to Jesus as God in phrases like
"our God Jesus Christ." The inscription's reference to a "table"
likely pertains to the Eucharistic altar, reinforcing a theological setting
where Jesus is worshiped as divine.
If the phrase was intended to separate God from Jesus Christ, we would
expect more explicit syntactic markers, such as the addition of καί (and)
or clearer grammatical distinctions. Other early Christian inscriptions and
texts consistently use similar formulas to affirm the divine identity of Jesus,
providing strong evidence for the unity of "God Jesus Christ" as the
intended meaning here.
The crux of your argument lies in
the claim that Ἰησοῦ (Iesou) being in the genitive means “God of Jesus”
and not “God Jesus Christ.” In Greek, it is common for appositional
constructions to involve cases like the genitive or dative. For example, when
referring to “God Jesus Christ,” the nominative would not necessarily be
required. Instead, apposition allows for Θεῷ (God, in the dative) to be
followed by Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ (Jesus Christ, also in the dative, with “Jesus”
in the genitive modifying “Christ”). This interpretation fits well with the
inscription’s intended theological emphasis: “to God (namely) Jesus Christ.”
The genitive Ἰησοῦ modifies Χριστῷ, not Θεῷ, making it
read naturally as a single unit: "Jesus Christ."
Early Christian texts often use apposition to clarify divine titles. For
example, in the New Testament, John 20:28 states, “ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός
μου” (My Lord and my God), where apposition identifies “Lord” and “God” as
the same entity. The phrase “God of Jesus” would typically require a
construction like ὁ Θεός τοῦ Ἰησοῦ, not the phrasing seen here. This
specific construction in the mosaic does not include the article τοῦ,
which would make the genitive relational (“of Jesus”). Furthermore, Θεῷ
Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ aligns with early Christian liturgical language, where dative
cases frequently denote the recipient of offerings or prayers. The genitive
here functions adjectivally or possessively, modifying the compound name Jesus
Christ, not separating Jesus from God.
The use of ΘΩ, ΙΥ, ΧΥ demonstrates a unified theological formula.
This shorthand was specifically designed to express divinity and sacredness,
often applied collectively to names and titles like “Jesus Christ” and “God.” In
this context, the abbreviation underscores the identification of Jesus Christ
with God, as part of an early Christian declaration of faith. The absence of καί
(and) further strengthens the unity of “God Jesus Christ” in the
inscription. If the intent was to separate “God” and “Jesus Christ,” the writer
could have easily included a conjunction for clarity. The lack of καί
supports an appositional reading.
The genitive case
for "Jesus" is τοῦ Ἰησοῦ (toû Iēsoû), and the dative
case can appear as either τῷ Ἰησοῖ (tôi Iēsoî) or Ἰησοῦ
(Iēsoû), depending on the form. The phrase in the mosaic, Θεῷ
Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ (Theō Iēsou Christō), uses:
- Θεῷ (Theō): dative, meaning “to God.”
- Ἰησοῦ (Iēsou): in this case, the shorter
dative form of Jesus.
- Χριστῷ (Christō): dative, meaning “to Christ.”
This means all three terms
are in the dative case. Ἰησοῦ here is not
in the genitive case but in its alternative dative form. In
some instances, Greek uses the shorter Ἰησοῦ instead of the
longer Ἰησοῖ as the dative. This occurs in some Koine Greek
texts, especially in inscriptions and manuscripts, where space was limited. The
same phenomenon occurs in New Testament manuscripts (e.g., John 1:17 uses Ἰησοῦ
in the dative, meaning "through Jesus Christ"). As part of nomina
sacra, sacred names were abbreviated and often lacked accents or
breathings. This simplification supports the idea that Ἰησοῦ
is the dative here, as nomina sacra frequently omit such
distinctions when abbreviating divine titles.
Thus, the phrase Θεῷ
Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ translates as:
The structure does not separate
“God” and “Jesus Christ”. Instead, it forms
an appositional phrase:
- Θεῷ: "to God."
- Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ: Further identifies the God
being referenced, namely, "Jesus Christ."
If the inscription had
intended to say “to the God of Jesus”, it would require the
genitive case τοῦ Ἰησοῦ (toû Iēsou). The absence of τοῦ
confirms that Ἰησοῦ is in the dative case, not the genitive.
The argument for translating the phrase as “to the God of Jesus” relies on a misunderstanding
of the dative case of Ἰησοῦ (mistaking it for genitive), and the absence
of τοῦ, which is necessary for a
genitive construction like "the God of Jesus." If the
inscription intended to separate "God" and "Jesus Christ"
into two distinct entities, it would have required the addition of a
conjunction like καί (and) or a proper
genitive structure (e.g., Θεῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ). Neither
is present here. So the term Ἰησοῦ in the mosaic is
the dative case, not genitive.
The mosaic dates to a period when early Christians widely recognized Jesus
as God. Second-century texts, such as those by Ignatius of Antioch, refer to
“our God Jesus Christ” (e.g., Ignatius to the Ephesians). This shows that
the theological identification of Jesus as God was well-established before
Constantine. While later Byzantine inscriptions might prefer phrases like “Lord
Jesus Christ” or “Christ our God,” this reflects evolving liturgical language,
not a rejection of earlier Christological formulations. The mosaic’s phrasing
aligns with pre-Constantinian Christian expressions.
The phrase “God of Jesus” implies a subordinate relationship inconsistent
with the high Christology evidenced in early Christian writings and liturgy. For
example, in Philippians 2:6-11, Paul describes Jesus as being “in the form
of God” and receiving worship, indicating equality with God. Early
Christian texts and inscriptions often use similar phrasing to emphasize the
deity of Christ. For example the Rylands Papyrus (P52) uses the nomina sacra to
express divine titles without ambiguity. Other inscriptions referring to “God
Jesus Christ” lack the relational connotation implied by “God of Jesus.”
The presence of a Roman centurion (Gaianus) and other inscriptions
commemorating women does not detract from the theological focus of the main
inscription. The inclusion of such figures reflects the mosaic’s communal and
liturgical significance rather than diminishing its Christological
implications. Claims about the larger spacing between Θεῷ and Ἰησοῦ
are speculative. Variations in spacing are common in ancient inscriptions and
do not necessarily reflect a theological or grammatical distinction.
Based on the linguistic, historical, and theological evidence, the most
natural translation of the inscription is:
“The God-loving Akeptous has offered the table
to God Jesus Christ as a memorial.”
This translation accounts for the appositional structure of the dative
phrases, respects the theological unity expressed by the nomina sacra, and reflects
early Christian worship and belief in the deity of Jesus Christ.
The assertion that the Megiddo mosaic does not call Jesus "God"
relies on speculative interpretations of spacing and an a priori theological
bias. The linguistic, historical, and theological evidence overwhelmingly
supports the traditional reading: the mosaic explicitly identifies Jesus Christ
as God. This interpretation aligns with the broader context of early
Christian worship and belief, as well as with the New Testament and other early
inscriptions.
The
suggestion that the inscription should be translated as “God of Jesus and to
Christ” misinterprets the Greek grammar and theological context. The use of the
genitive Ἰησοῦ does not necessitate a
relational reading (“God of Jesus”) but instead modifies the compound title “Jesus Christ” within an
appositional phrase. The argument for "God of Jesus" misinterprets the grammar and fails to account for the absence of genitive markers or conjunctions. Instead, the mosaic reflects early Christian worship of Jesus as divine, consistent with both the New Testament and other early inscriptions. The inscription is a clear declaration of Jesus’ deity,
consistent with early Christian theology and liturgical practice.