Posts by aqwsed12345

  • Sea Breeze
    55

    Trinity Statements in the Dead Sea Scrolls

    by Sea Breeze in
    1. watchtower
    2. beliefs

    dr. ken johnson has identified several statements in the dead sea scrolls that predict that god would visit the earth as a man... as the messiah.

    .

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ljrfvytjhve&ab_channel=kenjohnson%28biblefacts%29 .

    1. aqwsed12345
    2. Sea Breeze
    3. peacefulpete
  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    The Trinity exposed


  • Sea Breeze
    55

    Trinity Statements in the Dead Sea Scrolls

    by Sea Breeze in
    1. watchtower
    2. beliefs

    dr. ken johnson has identified several statements in the dead sea scrolls that predict that god would visit the earth as a man... as the messiah.

    .

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ljrfvytjhve&ab_channel=kenjohnson%28biblefacts%29 .

    1. aqwsed12345
    2. Sea Breeze
    3. peacefulpete
  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    slimboyfat

    "Why doesn’t that count?"

    Because we take into account not only that there is a difference in theological background between the OT and the NT, the most important thing is that it was written in a different language, so here it is not necessary to look at the general sense in which "elohim" is used in the OT, but to whom and in what sense "theos" was used in the NT originally written in Greek. And it is decisive: no inspired biblical text originally written in Greek calls anyone other than the true God "theos" in a positive sense.

    "What Heb 1.4 says is that Jesus “became” better than the angels because he inherited a more excellent name than theirs."

    Hebrews 1 speaks partly of the supremacy which he already possessed from the beginning (meaning his deity), since he is the only one begotten of the Father, and on the other hand of the glory which he received only after his resurrection and ascension. The two are not sharply separated in the text, for example in verse 10 it is about the creation of the world, it was obviously before those mentioned in the verses 3-4: "made purification of sins", etc. So this part is about his glorification as a man, i.e. that after his resurrection and ascension he received the name "Lord" in terms of his human nature, this is what Philippians 2 is about.

    "On the other hand it makes no sense to talk about God himself “becoming” better than angels."

    However it makes perfect sense, if we confess not only the one-essence deity of the Son with the Father in the Nicene sense, but also his dual nature in the Chalcedonian sense, according to which he took on human nature at the time of the Incarnation and will no longer put it down. And what the Father did in relation to the Son, he did not "with himself", since we are not Sabellian modalists either. Here it is about how the Father glorified the man Christ.

    "Which manuscript are you saying had a full stop in John 1.1c?"

    The ancient manuscripts did not use full stops, commas, etc., and I did not claim that such an NT manuscript exists, but that this is how the Arians interpreted away John 1:1c.

  • Sea Breeze
    55

    Trinity Statements in the Dead Sea Scrolls

    by Sea Breeze in
    1. watchtower
    2. beliefs

    dr. ken johnson has identified several statements in the dead sea scrolls that predict that god would visit the earth as a man... as the messiah.

    .

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ljrfvytjhve&ab_channel=kenjohnson%28biblefacts%29 .

    1. aqwsed12345
    2. Sea Breeze
    3. peacefulpete
  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    The NT never calls God's angels 'THEOS', and in the case of Jesus, we are not just relying on the application of the word "THEOS" in the singular and without any diminutive appendages, but on such attributes (omniscience, beginninglessness in time, prayer hearing, worship, etc.) which cannot apply to created angels.

    On the one hand, the apostle sees the form of God in terms of equality with God, and on the other hand, we know that angels are in a lower form of existence than God. Christ has a higher dignity than the angels, according to the beginning of chapter 1 of the letter to the Hebrews. Thus, his divine form of existence cannot be categorized in the language that occasionally calls angels (or human judges) gods.

    The NT manuscripts did not differentiate between "THEOS" with a lowercase, and "THEOS" with upper case, they distinguished whether Nomina Sacra were used or not. For example P46 gives a very interesting example in the text of 1 Corinthians 8:4-6, in which references to “God” and “Lord” (in reference to Jesus) are written as Nomina Sacra, but the so-called (thus false) “gods” and “lords” are written out in their entirety:

    “With regard then to eating food sacrificed to idols, we know that an idol in this world is nothing, and that there is no God [ΘΣ] but one. If after all there are so-called gods [ΘΕOI], whether in heaven or on earth, as there are many gods [ΘΕOI] and many lords [KYPIOI], yet for us there is one God [ΘΣ], the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we live, and one Lord, Jesus Christ [KΣ, IHΣ XPΣ], through whom are all things and through whom we live."

    "THEOS" when applied to Jesus is always 'nomen sacrum' in the ancient MSS, so it should be translated with a capital letter.

    Fun fact: The Arians of the 4th century interpreted John 1:1c by putting a full stop after «God was», and "the Word" was placed as the beginning of sence in the next verse.