Slightly off topic but. . .from Greybeard's post 97 on P1:
How do they violate Jesus words at Matthew 5:22? The Watchtower itself explains this in 2006, 2/15 “Questions From Readers” article asks this: What three dangers was Jesus warning against at Matthew 5:22 ?
"What, then, did the expression “despicable fool” signify? The word used here sounded similar to a Hebrew term that means “rebellious,” or “mutinous.” It designates a person as morally worthless, an apostate and a rebel against God. So the person addressing his fellow as a “despicable fool” is as much as saying that his brother should receive a punishment fit for a rebel against God, everlasting destruction. From God’s standpoint, the one uttering such a condemnation against another could merit that severe sentence—everlasting destruction—himself.— Deuteronomy 19:17-19 ."
How do they get away with this stuff? A word "sounded similar" to a Hebrew term that means "rebellious or mutinous" which designates "apostate"???
Anyone in the real world would be laughed out of the country for such leaps of illogic!