And it was explained away by saying that the mountains before the flood were a lot smaller / lower than the mountains that exist today.
Are you saying this is the origin of the expression: "Making mountains out of mole hills?"
it was stated many years ago in answer to how did the flood cover the top of all the mountains on earth in noah`s day.?.
mount everest ?.
and it was explained away by saying that the mountains before the flood were a lot smaller / lower than the mountains that exist today.. so there was no problem .. when the deluge began with so much volume of water now covering the earth ( water being heavy ) pushed down into the weakest parts of the earth and raised up in other parts of the earth to where we now have higher mountains than existed before the flood of noah`s day.. in other words mount everest didn`t exist at its present height before the flood and neither did any other high mountain that exists today ,the topography all changed with the noachian flood.
And it was explained away by saying that the mountains before the flood were a lot smaller / lower than the mountains that exist today.
Are you saying this is the origin of the expression: "Making mountains out of mole hills?"
Article 2 also came into play in 1824 and 1876 and there was not a tie.
I attached the article.
I am not claiming to be a constitutional scholar. I have just been reading many opinions that have been expressed about the purpose/goal of the Trump campaign's strategy. Seems like the odds are slim.
It has also been stated that he may just be doing this to keep his base excited so that contributions keep coming in to help "defray the cost of defending the election" and that if he eventually admits defeat but declares he will run in 4 years it may keep other GOP contenders from entering the race.
Just my 2¢ and you got it for nothin' (which could prove to be its actual value).
Anyone like to chime in DOC's statement that it doesn't matter how many electoral colleges were won
Not sure if I'm dealing with someone too lazy to read the entirety or just doesn't "get it" because my "statement" did not state that.
So why has the politcal system in Washington proclaiming Biden as the President elect
The official "political system" HAS NOT DECLARED A WINNER! By that, I mean the "system" as defined by the Constitution.
On December 14 ,each State government is to appoint its Electors (to the College) based on their certified election results. (I believe most States much certify results by Dec 8).
On January 6, the newly elected members of Congress (both House and Senate) meet in a joint session to "count" the electoral votes and declare the "winner".
At this point in time, the news media have PROJECTED THEIR OPINION as to who is the APPARENT President-Elect. Ask Thomas Dewey what that's worth........
Rick, it only goes to the US House IF the election is "undecided" by the Electoral College. Easiest example would be a "tie" (which happened in 1800), but it has also happened when there were more than two candidates and none of them received a majority (1824 & 1876).
In this case, I think the scenario hoped for (by Trumpers) would be if some of the States were unable to "call" their election by that date (ie, tied up in court or the election results tossed out because of overwhelming fraud -- ie, the Dominion voting machines) and thus unable to ratify a winner and appoint his representatives in the College. If no candidate receives over 50% of the Electoral College votes, the decision moves into the US House.
So, is there fraud? Is the fraud so overwhelming that a Court (likely to go to the SCOTUS) will nullify the election results in one of more States? His lawyers claim this is the case due to the Dominion voting machines. (I've uploaded videos to this claim from Trump's lady lawyer and Rudy G. made the same claim in the last 24 hours on Fox.)
YMMV
Doc the house has no say in this at all. You obviously do not understand the constitution. Btw even if the constitution allowed for them to intervene, democrats control the house.
I think you're wrong. (Article 2, Section 1, Clause 3)
https://theconversation.com/congress-could-select-the-president-in-a-disputed-election-149580
If the election is contested and undecided (ie, tied up in courts) on the day the Electoral College is to vote and thus no decision can be made, the decision is moved into the US House of Representatives. However, each State is allowed ONLY ONE VOTE per State. Thus each State's congressmen (sexist, I know) must come to a conclusion for their own State. The GOP controls the majority in no less than 26 States (some have equal representation or equal congressmen). Thus the vote of the majority of States would likely vote for Trump.
The House has gotten involved only three times -- all in the 1800's.)
Is trump making a fool of himself and bringing reproach on the USA system of democracy ?
1) Trump really believes he can get this election result overturned, either by delaying it until it goes to the House and he is determined winner or by a final decision of "his" SCOTUS ruling to throw out enough late ballots to give him the win.
2) He's just rallying his base to keep donations coming in and will at some point concede and then declare his candidacy for 2024, which will keep many other potential GOP candidates out of the race.
so i have heard this 120 preaching time and 2034 end date.
are they pushing another set time of is this something someone else came up with?.
Funny, 2034 doesn't seem too far away anymore.
And in 2035 they will come up with a new "possible" timeline.
The great thing about "overlapping generations" is that there is always a new generation of chumps to sucker.
america was a power not to be reckoned with.
but lately it seems to be the laughing stock of the world.
what other countries are seeing on the news is riots, calls to de-fund the police, breakdown of society, and elections being over taken with fraud.