What I see in the Bible is this:
Mt 24:45-47
"Who then is the faithful and wise servant, whom his master has set over his household, to give them their food at the proper time?
46 Blessed is that servant whom his master will find so doing when he comes.
47 Truly, I say to you, he will set him over all his possessions.
ESV
It looks to me that the Master sets the slave/servant/steward over the master's household and over all of the master's possessions. The "his" in this passage appears to be the "Master".
But Djeggnog, it looks like you are telling me, "yes" that's correct, but at the same time you seem to contradict it by using the possessive noun "slave's" in place of "master's". See your original:
Djeggnog: ...it is by means of holy spirit that the "faithful and discreet slave" (Matthew 24:45-47), as represented by the Governing Body, received its appointment to preside over the slave's "domestics"...
Basically, I've just re-restated what I've been asking for clarification. Is this intentional or is it an error? Go back to this original, because I think you misunderstood when you tried to clarify, and thus you threw in the word "fellow" while focusing on the wrong area (green highlighted instead of the possessive noun) and that just adds to the confusion for me when comparing it to the actual scriptures cited. (see below)
The "slave" or "steward" is in charge of or has been appointed over his fellow "domestics." I'm now going to change one word and say exactly the same thing: The "slave" or "steward" is in charge of or has been appointed over his fellow "slaves."