There are variations in this text from extant Hebrew versions beyond the scope of this discussion, but translators to Greek had to decide when to use the term "genea" and how. Maybe there is a clue there.
kepler, I think the point is that there are no clues and that you should stop looking for them. The point of the first chapter of Matthew is to break up the important people in the Jewish religious history into symmetric groups of 2x7 generations: the generation being defined as sons and fathers. There is no implication of years, and to try to figure out how many years he might have been talking about per generation is to entirely miss the point.
If he was not writing from Babylon, it was probably Rome. But why would he call Rome Babylon if he didn't see a resemblance? What was the resemblance?
Well, the resemblance would be that Rome was acting to oppress the chosen of God the way Babylon was. So, in the Jewish/Christian context, the similarity is pretty obvious, right?
Also, the "this generation" passage appears in all three synoptic Gospels, but there are significant differences in the overall accounts surrounding that discussion. So, for arguments about context for "generation" in Matthew: do they apply as well in Mark and Luke?
ok. I don't think you are listening.