Among the reasons the Watchtower society gives in appendix c of the New World Translation for inserting the name Jehovah in the New Testament is the following:
· " In Greek, is the definite article missing from before Kyʹri·os (Lord), where it would normally be expected grammatically, thus indicating that a proper name may originally have appeared in the Greek text? (For example, Mr. 13:20)"
D
Does anyone know if this is a valid argument? It sounds like the copyists would not have known Greek grammar in order to have made such a blunder by replacing the tetragrammaton with Kyrios and neglecting to put in the definite article.