Thank you.
I have posted here whatever my Witness family members find it difficult to answer.
key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
Thank you.
I have posted here whatever my Witness family members find it difficult to answer.
key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
Bible writers are very clear about this. They use the mild word kolasis in the sense of corrective punishment by father to child, as in 1 John 4:17, 18.
But Jesus did not use the harsh word timoria in Mathew 25:46. (Compare Acts 22:5; 26:11) Since punishment is from God who is supremely good (Mark 10:18) it must be with some good purpose behind, to serve as remedial discipline. And it will also be proportionate to ones action. (Mark 4:24; Matthew 5:43-48)
key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
Another glaring mistake is Mathew 25:46 which all Translations render: ““Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.” (https://biblehub.com/matthew/25-46.htm)
Only NW Translation puts their own thought into it and distorts the whole meaning: “These will depart into everlasting cutting-off.” (https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/study-bible/books/matthew/25/)
The Greek word used is kolasis. “The word was originally a gardening word, and its original meaning was pruning trees. In Greek there are two words for punishment, timoria and kolasis, and there is a quite definite distinction between them. Aristotle defines the difference; kolasis is for the sake of the one who suffers it; timoria is for the sake of the one who inflicts it. Plato says that no one punishes (kolazei) simply because he has done wrong - that would be to take unreasonable vengeance (timoreitai). We punish (kolazei) a wrong-doer in order that he may not do wrong again (Protagoras 323 E). Clement of Alexandria (Stromateis 4.24; 7.16) defines kolasis as pure discipline, and timoria as the return of evil for evil. Aulus Gellius says that kolasis is given that a man may be corrected; timoria is given that dignity and authority may be vindicated (The Attic Nights7.14). The difference is quite clear in Greek and it is always observed. Timoria is retributive punishment. Kolasis is always given to amend and to cure. (From The Apostles’ Creed by William Barclay.) (https://forum.)
Jesus is the one who used the word kolasis in Mathew 25:46. He never meant eternal cutting off because he had already made it clear what would happen to the unrighteous: “When Jesus heard this, he was amazed and said to those following him, “Truly I tell you, I have not found anyone in Israel with such great faith. I say to you that many will come from the east and the west, and will take their places at the feast with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven. But the subjects of the kingdom will be thrown outside, into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” (Mathew 8:10-13) Also compare Mathew 19:28-30 which speaks of two contrasting groups of people---one group receives "100 times as much" whereas others receive something less about which they "will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” To do this means they exist, not were cut off.
key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
Key Scripture 2 Timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious Translations (such as American Standard Version ; Douay-Rheims Bible etc) as it is what the Greek Text says.
This is in harmony with the contents of Bible and also with the writer Paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (Acts 20:29-30) For example, verses such as Romans 7:19 is such distortion. Such verses cannot originate from real Paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 Thessalonians 2:10) Hence Paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 Thessalonians 5:19-23; Ephesians 5:24) There are many things in the Scriptures which are not inspired such as words of Satan, words of Job’s wife and his false friends, words of Judas, Lot’s daughters …etc. Apostle Peter never disowned Jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked Jews, saying: “You disowned the Holy and Righteous One and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (Acts 3:14) His listeners would have asked him “What right do you have to reprove us for ‘DISOWNING Jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” All such verses or accounts were later adoptions. (2 Timothy 4:3)
Enormous amount of harm was done because of such wrong Translations. When lovers of truth rightly raised their doubt about certain verse, they have been excommunicated/disfellowshipped throughout history. Instead of correcting such translation errors, NW Translation imitated other translations which render “All Scripture is inspired of God.” (https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/study-bible/books/2-timothy/3/)
This is only a sample though I have noted some other.
i was listening to the co talk to my wife’s congregation on sunday and pretty much the complete talk was justifying doctrinal and organizational changes and pretty much preparing the ‘rank and file’ for upcoming changes.
anyone on hear have any insight of what ‘new light’ is coming in the future?.
It is Jew's history (not Jesus history). Typing error regretted.
"Babylonians occupied the Land of Israel and exiled the Yehudim (Judeans, or Jews), as captives into Babylon. Some 50 years later, the Persian Empire (ancient Iran) conquered the Babylonian Empire and allowed the Jews to return home to the land of Israel. But, offered freedom under Persian rule and daunted by the task of rebuilding a society that lay in ruins, most Jews remained in Babylon." (https://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jews-of-the-middle-east)
See Jew's history says "after 50 years." But
i was listening to the co talk to my wife’s congregation on sunday and pretty much the complete talk was justifying doctrinal and organizational changes and pretty much preparing the ‘rank and file’ for upcoming changes.
anyone on hear have any insight of what ‘new light’ is coming in the future?.
It is Jesus history and they know better when they were exiled.
https://www.timesofisrael.com/burnt-remains-of-586-bce-destruction-of-jerusalem-help-map-physics-holy-grail/i was listening to the co talk to my wife’s congregation on sunday and pretty much the complete talk was justifying doctrinal and organizational changes and pretty much preparing the ‘rank and file’ for upcoming changes.
anyone on hear have any insight of what ‘new light’ is coming in the future?.
Thev can change 607 BC to 586 which is the actual year of overthrow of Theocracy from Jerusalem, according to all reliable SOURCES INCLUDING JEWISH ENCYCLOPEDIA, and reach 1935 as the end of gentile period.
This is a long-awaited correction which, if done, would prove them to be humble, thus really God’s organization.
deut 14:21 you shall not eat anything that has died a natural death; give it to the stranger in your community to eat, or you may sell it to a foreigner.
for you are a people consecrated to yhwh.... it seems quite self evident the ritual of blood letting prior to eating meat was understood by the deuteronomist as binding only on jews..
When Jesus said: "Nothing outside a person can defile them by going into them. Rather, it is what comes out of a person that defiles them," (Mark 7:15) he dismissed all such restrictions on use of blood. It means they were all human teachings. (Mathew 19:4-8)
jesus had foretold that people of "last days" would “faint out of fear” because of things such as “sea-level rise’ as part of “signs of last days” in luke 21:25. bible translators—including new world translation of jehovah’s witnesses—missed the real meaning as they translated it as “roaring of the sea and its agitation.” (https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/luke/21/).
more careful translations such as niv put it: “roaring and tossing of the sea.” (https://biblehub.com/luke/21-25.htm) word for “tossing” is σάλου (salou), from saino; i.e., billow,” (swell outwards).
thus underlying thought is like balloon swelling, or water flowing outwards, as though ready to roll over, thus points to the modern terminology “sea-level rise.” biblos interlinear translation (int:) translates it as “of [the] sea and rolling surge.” “rolling sea.” (a greek lexicon to the new testament, edward robinson (d.d., page 416) (a greek lexicon to the new testament on the basis of dr. robinson ... by c. robson).. jesus’ original use of the wording “tossing of the sea” is another way of saying “sea-level would rise” as a result of pollution of air.
what “the abomination that causes desolation” mentioned in mathew 24:15 means could be understood only by close followers of jesus because it was part of his personal discussion with them.
by stopping to greet those whom they consider as “their enemies” jws are identifying themselves as “pagans,” according to jesus.
(mathew 5:43-48) thus they cannot correctly understand what the abomination that causes desolation” that would appear as part of signs of “last days.”.
Luke 21:25 speaks about sea-level rise. The same word is used in the sense of “shaken” or “unsettled” in 1 Thessalonians 3:3 as happens during persecution. And the impression we get from Luke 21:25 is that sea-level rise is a momentary phenomenon before "Great Tribulation,” but truth is that it is going to stay here for a long time till we remove all CO2 from atmosphere.
Similarly, “the abomination that causes desolation” mentioned in Mathew 24:15 may seem to be a momentary phenomenon. But it is for the close associates [those having the mind of Christ] of Jesus to discern—hence can’t be anything literal such as Roman Army, or any Idol, not even UN because God called all the rulers of earth as “His servant” (Romans 13:1-6) which means UN cannot be the abomination” to God.
“Abomination” is to God, not to us. A teaching that creates the impression that God is being used as a tool of Satan or HE is dancing according to the whims and fancies of Satan would be felt by God as “an abomination” to Him.
It was this reasoning that helped me not to be swayed by JW teaching even though I started Bible Study with them. It ended when this teaching of Issue of Jehovah’s Sovereignty was dealt with.