autonomous sensory meridian response.. any thoughts about or experiences with this sensation?.
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Wow... twice inside of as many days I came across this condition.I wasn't looking for it... was actually searching for a specific song by a soft-voiced female singer, but couldn't remember any of the words. But, can't get the tune or tone of voice out of my head. Came across this.
http://mentalfloss.com/article/53220/listening-soft-voices-can-cause-brain-orgasms
i'm really interested in this question because i've heard for years that if you forgo further education and go pioneering, when you have a family down the track you will get a good job because jehovah will provide for you because you pioneered.
as long as i was a kool-aid drinker, even then, i thought, "how does pioneering pay your bills?
surely education should come first.
I'm fortunate that I have a talent in my chosen career. It's paid me well, so I'm living proof that one does not necessarily need a college education to succeed. I realize that my situation is unique. Most people in my profession DO need a college education. I happen to excel naturally at what I do. That said, I have indeed lost out on opportunities SPECIFICALLY BECAUSE I didn't have a degree. Am I bitter about it? A little. It definitely took me a lot longer to get where I'm at.
What I'm more bitter about is the admonition the organization gave years ago about not saving for retirement. I started very late, and currently have very little to show for it. The end was supposed to be here a long time ago. When it comes time for me to retire, well, just forget about it. I'm pretty sure I'll be working till the day I die.
remember this and other threads a few months back, on the subject that some kingdom halls in chile acquiesced to govt rules that every building should display the national flag on the day of celebration?.
http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/262505/kingdom-hall-chile-has-national-flag?size=20&page=1.
many of us here and around the net, calling on our dub experiences cried "never would that happen!
john ekrann, a helper to the gb, revealed the true reason for the change was protecting jws from apostates and other "anointed" christians.. see: http://tv.jw.org/#video/vodprogramsevents/pub-jwbmw_e_201501_2_video (around 4:55ms).
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im not sure where to post this but i think its telling.
not long but read it closely i get a bit confused on the latter half.
the question is did god establish his covenant with the gentile nations or the jews.. [though i have read from a jewish web source, that the jews have nothing to do with israel and the greek scriptures or half the hebrew scriptures ].
This boils down to two questions: What are Christ's commandments? Are we still under the Law today?
The first one is interesting, because Christ boiled the law down to two main commandments: 1) Love God with your whole heart, mind and soul, 2) Love your neighbor as yourself. (Matt 22:37-39) He also gave a "new commandment": I am giving you a new commandment, that you love one another; just as I have loved you, you also love one another. (John 13:34)
There are plenty of other "commandments". Just do a Google search on "what are Christ's commandments". You'll find plenty. These aren't talked about in great detail throughout the rest of the NT, although "love your neighbor as yourself" seems the be the one with the most amount of attention.
Rom 13:9,10: For the law code, “You must not commit adultery, you must not murder, you must not steal, you must not covet,” and whatever other commandment there is, is summed up in this saying: “You must love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does not work evil to one’s neighbor; therefore, love is the law’s fulfillment.
Rom 15:2: Let each of us please his neighbor for his good, to build him up.
Gal 5:13,14: You were called to freedom, brothers; only do not use this freedom as an opportunity to pursue fleshly desires, but through love slave for one another. 14 For the entire Law has been fulfilled in one commandment, namely: “You must love your neighbor as yourself.
James 2:8: If, now, you carry out the royal law according to the scripture, “You must love your neighbor as yourself,” you are doing quite well.
1 John 3:21-23: Beloved ones, if our hearts do not condemn us, we have freeness of speech toward God; 22 and whatever we ask we receive from him, because we are observing his commandments and doing what is pleasing in his eyes. 23 Indeed, this is his commandment: that we have faith in the name of his Son Jesus Christ and love one another, just as he gave us a commandment.
Now, as for the question, "are we under Law", I hesitate to get into this because it is a hotly debated topic, but here are some relevant passages.
Christ didn't come to "observe" the Law, but to fulfill it. The Greek word for "fulfill" is plerosai (Strong's 4137), which means "I fill, fulfill, complete". Christ came to fulfill, or complete the Law, not end it, but make it complete.
Luke 16:16 - The Law and the Prophets were until John. From then on, the Kingdom of God is being declared as good news, and every sort of person is pressing forward toward it.
Other passages that relate: Romans 7:3-6, all of Galatians 3; 2 Cor 3:7-14; all of Hebrews, but particularly 8:13-10:10
Hope this helps.
im not sure where to post this but i think its telling.
not long but read it closely i get a bit confused on the latter half.
the question is did god establish his covenant with the gentile nations or the jews.. [though i have read from a jewish web source, that the jews have nothing to do with israel and the greek scriptures or half the hebrew scriptures ].
Not all Israel were considered Jews. The Jews were of the two-tribe kingdom (Judah and Benjamin) and the rest of Israel were the other ten tribes. When Jesus was at the well talking to a Samaritan woman, she hinted at what the problem was between Jews and Samaritans:
Our forefathers worshipped on this mountain, but you people say that in Jerusalem is the place where people must worship. (John 4:20)
However, Jesus affirmed something: salvation begins with the Jews (John 4:22)
Why
could he say that? Because the covenant with Abraham was not the same
as the covenant with Israel. The covenant with Abraham is that he would
be father to many nations. (Gen 17:2) The covenant with Israel is mainly
about the lineage to the Messiah would coming through him. Even before
that covenant was in place, Jacob (Israel) called his sons to him and prophesied
that the scepter would come through Judah. (Gen 49:10) Christ was from the tribe of Judah. (Matt 1:3;Luke 3:33).
Christ was sent to "the lost sheep of the house of Israel", and the apostles focused on these. But, Paul was sent to the nations, the "Gentiles".
When the blood of the covenant was poured out, that is, when Christ was executed, the new covenant went into effect. At that time, there was no consideration of the Gentiles. So, that covenant was specifically with Israel.
However, after Christ was raised, this happened:
Jesus
approached and spoke to them, saying: “All authority has been given me
in heaven and on the earth. 19 Go, therefore, and make disciples of
people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the
Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, 20 teaching them to
observe all the things I have commanded you. And look! I am with you all
the days until the conclusion of the system of things.” (Matt 28:18-20)
Why did he say that? Remember, Christ was sent
ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. (Matt 15:24) He did not
attempt to preach to any Gentiles. At John 10:16, though, he said he had
"other sheep" that he must bring in. But then was not the time. It was
only after his resurrection that he extended the grace of God to the
nations. Why? Because he wanted to. Matt 28:18: "All authority has been
given me...Go, therefore..."
Other passages to consider: Gal 3:26-29; Rom 1:16-18; Eph 2:11-22; all of Romans 11
before i get the "no it was not, because god does not exist and this is a writing of man", i am directing this discussion to those that either still believe, or need as many tools as possible to talk to a family member still in.. the purpose of my posting is to discuss what i believe to be a mistake on this book or, in the other hand, be corrected if i am not getting the entire picture.. in the book, chapter 19 "god's wisdon in a sacred secret", paragraph 10, it reads.... 10 second, the law thoroughly demonstrated mankinds need for a ransom.
a perfect law, it exposed the inability of sinful humans to adhere to it fully.
compare this with hebrews 7:11-12. jesus a priest like melchizedek11now if perfection was through the levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of aaron?
Let me add that Heb 8:7 found the COVENANT to be faulty, not the Law. The covenant proved faulty because the Israelites breached it, and because it was taught by humans. The NEW covenant would be different. God himself would write it on their hearts, instead of man attempting to instill it in others.
Hebrews 8 continues to cite Jeremiah 31, and it's one the things that I'm continually baffled at regarding the huge amounts of printed literature from WT. The new covenant, in part, says: "‘And they will no longer teach each one his fellow citizen and each one his brother, saying: “Know Jehovah!” For they will all know me, from the least to the greatest of them." And yet, here we are studying a book called, "Draw Close to Jehovah". How's that for irony?
before i get the "no it was not, because god does not exist and this is a writing of man", i am directing this discussion to those that either still believe, or need as many tools as possible to talk to a family member still in.. the purpose of my posting is to discuss what i believe to be a mistake on this book or, in the other hand, be corrected if i am not getting the entire picture.. in the book, chapter 19 "god's wisdon in a sacred secret", paragraph 10, it reads.... 10 second, the law thoroughly demonstrated mankinds need for a ransom.
a perfect law, it exposed the inability of sinful humans to adhere to it fully.
compare this with hebrews 7:11-12. jesus a priest like melchizedek11now if perfection was through the levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of aaron?
There is a MASSIVE mis-treatement of the word "perfect" by WT. The word used in the Biblical sense does not mean what WT implies it means. The Greek word eteleiōsen at Heb 7:19 literally means "I complete, accomplish, make perfect". Thus, "perfect" means "complete". This makes sense. The Law could not make ANYTHING complete. That's why they had to sacrifice over and over and over again. But the one sacrifice of Christ could make things complete.
You may also note Hebrews 5:9. Speaking of the Christ, it says: "And after he had been made perfect, he became responsible for everlasting salvation to all those obeying him," I can almost hear you gasping. WHAT? Christ was NOT PERFECT?????!?!??!?! In the definition of the Greek word for perfect, no. While he was in the flesh, he was NOT complete. This does not mean he sinned, for we are told at Hebrews 4:15 that he was "without sin".
As an interesting aside, the old NWT Reference Bible has a footnote on Hebrews 5:9 on the word "perfect". It reads:
Or, “after he had been inaugurated (installed; empowered; consecrated to office).” Gr., te·lei·o·theisʹ. See Le 21:10 ftn. Compare Le 8:33 ftn.
This is one of the proofs that Christ became King long, long, long before 1914, and in their own Bible.
rev 17:9 describes something about the "woman", the harlot, babylon the great:.
here is where the intelligence that has wisdom comes in: the seven heads mean seven mountains, where the woman sits on top.
and there are seven kings: five have fallen, one is, the other has not yet arrived, but when he does arrive he must remain a short while.. i was dreaming about this verse last night, so i thought i'd look it up.
@Gladiator, wish I could. Working on it. Slowly, slowly, slowly. But, first, I'm busting out of the WT indoctrination. That means asking lots of questions, gathering input from a variety of sources, and forming a conclusion. It's often not the same conclusion as WTBTS (well, duh!)
@Bobcat, once again, thanks. I'm always appreciative of your research.
@Londo111, true, but since Revelation was given to John in signs, what's the saying... things may not be as they appear...
@myelaine, when I get some time and privacy, I'll watch that. Thanks.
@Jonathan Drake, yes, that's a fairly common view. I'm aware of it, but I don't currently share it. I say "currently". Revelation is such a difficult book and with a lifetime of one-sided WT teachings, it's a challenge when considering anything else. I'm trying, though.
@cappytan, you're statement is spot on. I know I don't believe WT anymore. But, just what DO I believe? That is the question I'm working on answering.
@OrphanCrow, I am still a believer. Hard to shake that. You may be completely correct. And it's a conclusion I may eventually come to agree with you on at some future point. For now, though, the journey is interesting, myth or not.
this weeks assigned bible reading is judges 1-4. i have never noticed judges 1:19 before which reads in the nwt as:.
jehovah was with judah, and they took possession of the mountainous region, but they could not drive out the inhabitants of the plain,* because they had war chariots with iron scythes.
but in the kj as:.
Thanks, Bloody Hotdogs!
This highlights something very tricky, in my opinion, with the WT Library CD. I usually just click on the verse number and it brings up the list of references. Well, clicking on this verse brings up no references. I usually don't proceed past there. But, this time, I went to both the scripture indexes (1930-1985 and 1986-2014) and again, no references. But, searching for the verse DOES bring up references, but only when searching for Judges 1:19 without quotes. With quotes, no references. And even with quotes around "Jg 1:19", no references, even though there are references to this specific verse, as you found.
