As a non-jw discussing "the only true" Christianity with JWs, I brought up Romans 14 for obvious reasons. After reviewing the chapter as a whole and asking appropriate questions, I went back up to verse 11 and sincerely asked,
"By the way, how are comparative verses like Romans 14:11, Isaiah 45:23 and Phillippians 2:9-11 interpreted in your faith with the same language being attributed to the Father in the OT and Jesus in the NT? Wouldn't that have been heretical? and Paul did this repeatedly so, according to that which you've always known, what was Paul's reasoning?"
So, they're going to get back to me. It's only been two weeks and I've talked to one of them every day. I'm sure they're working on a VERY THOROUGHLY researched explanation.... maybe there's a peer review that has to happen first.
Can anyone prep me with a simplified WTS explanation for Paul assigning descriptors to Jesus that were said to belong only to God?