Posts by AlainAlam

i would like to share the following: *** w74 11/15 p. 703 questions from readers ***do lewd practices on the part of a married person toward that one’s own mate constitute a scriptural basis for the offended mate to get a divorce?there are times when lewd practices within the marriage arrangement would provide a basis for a scriptural divorce.. based on this, some jw chose to divorce.

but then:*** w83 3/15 p. 30 honor godly marriage!

AlainAlam

Nittt-Gritty: They published a wrong definition with the best of intentions. They swept their mistake under the rug in a footnote with not so laudable intentions.

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Evidence of WT bad intent - How they handled changing the meaning of "porneia"

by AlainAlam in

sorry, long post :) i'm considering evidence that at least at some point, the gb/watchtower had bad intentions.

i would like to share the following: *** w74 11/15 p. 703 questions from readers ***do lewd practices on the part of a married person toward that one’s own mate constitute a scriptural basis for the offended mate to get a divorce?there are times when lewd practices within the marriage arrangement would provide a basis for a scriptural divorce.. based on this, some jw chose to divorce.

but then:*** w83 3/15 p. 30 honor godly marriage!

AlainAlam

Nitty-Gritty of course "fruits" involve more than an apology. The fact that they correct/improve their beliefs/procedures is definitely to their credit. But it doesn't mean there's no need for an apology. If I stomp your foot, it's not sufficient for me to just stomp your foot - I should also admit my mistake and apologize.

Also, let's not get confused between two things. Supposing that the Bible is God's world and that the second definition of porneia is the correct one, the WT's first definition is wrong at two separate levels:

1) It is a wrong teaching in itself, so they're teaching something unrighteous. Readers were taught something wrong, but that's it. I can accept it that no apology is required. Readers were taught something wrong, now things have been rectified and we move on to something else.

2) It caused people to take action and divorce unscripturally, which put them in line for adultery when they remarried. Updating the definition doesn't tackle this issue. So, where are their fruits of repentance?

There's no way I can view this as any other thing than unrepentance/bad intent.

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Evidence of WT bad intent - How they handled changing the meaning of "porneia"

by AlainAlam in

sorry, long post :) i'm considering evidence that at least at some point, the gb/watchtower had bad intentions.

i would like to share the following: *** w74 11/15 p. 703 questions from readers ***do lewd practices on the part of a married person toward that one’s own mate constitute a scriptural basis for the offended mate to get a divorce?there are times when lewd practices within the marriage arrangement would provide a basis for a scriptural divorce.. based on this, some jw chose to divorce.

but then:*** w83 3/15 p. 30 honor godly marriage!

AlainAlam

3rdgen "the WTBT$ stated that homosexual acts committed by someone married were a perversion but were NOT scriptural grounds for divorce. The Aid book distributed in 1972 said so in print." I didn't know. No apologies there either.

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A chance for the unrighteous?

by AlainAlam in

the witnesses teach that the "unrighteous" are brought back to life in order to learn about god during the 1000-year reign.

i don't think that's a bible teaching, for the following reason:.

1) no verse says that.

AlainAlam

Rev 19.5 speaks of "fierceness and wrath". Sounds like destroying evildoers, not teaching them and helping them dedicate their lives to Jehovah.

I don't believe the "relatively-righteous" thing either. I don't believe in the Bible anymore. I'm just trying to see where the Witnesses went wrong, doctrinally.

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Evidence of WT bad intent - How they handled changing the meaning of "porneia"

by AlainAlam in

sorry, long post :) i'm considering evidence that at least at some point, the gb/watchtower had bad intentions.

i would like to share the following: *** w74 11/15 p. 703 questions from readers ***do lewd practices on the part of a married person toward that one’s own mate constitute a scriptural basis for the offended mate to get a divorce?there are times when lewd practices within the marriage arrangement would provide a basis for a scriptural divorce.. based on this, some jw chose to divorce.

but then:*** w83 3/15 p. 30 honor godly marriage!

AlainAlam

wozza, you said "they accept and glorify the writings of Solomon in the bible , yet he died an apostate to the kingdom of god in his time!"

That would apply to all Christians, but in all cases, his writings were before his apostasy - or they should have been if we believe the Bible is inspired by God.

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