according to you, Im confused alot... choke on this AQ: I DO NOT CARE FOR YOUR TRINITARIAN THEOLOGY!
if you want to discuss linguistics, cool - I'm happy to, if you can answer with a reasonable length post cool I'm happy to engage. If you can actually cite sources when requested, even better.
"This metaphorical use is standard in biblical language and does not conflict with monotheism." - so calling something "a god" is NOT polytheism then.. or henotheism (both of which you stretch the definition of)
again if I believed in the trinity, I would understand the NWT to be saying "a divine person"
"The critique that I rely on Wikipedia is misplaced," - When did I say YOU, rely on Wikipedia - quote please.
"Your insistence on citations is valid" - so provide them. Iv asked for 4 in my last 2 posts - if its valid - provide them
" but dismissing arguments solely due to their perceived association with Wikipedia reflects a lack of engagement with their substance." - You can use Wikipedia all you want, until you publish an academic paper. idc
I dismiss wikipedia on alot of issues unless other sources agree with it - this is not solely directed at you, its a blanket "policy" of mine.
"The phrase "without Him" categorically excludes the possibility of the Logos being merely a passive instrument, or a created being himself." - Do you know what a "passive instrument" is? and no it doesnt.. There is an idiom that speaks in absolutes around the time the bible was written.
"Rendering it as “a god” imposes a theological bias, introducing a polytheistic-henotheistic nuance incompatible with the monotheistic framework of John’s Gospel." - and yet here you are proving my point you CANNOT do strictly linguistically arguments, My question was around STRICT linguistics, not Johns theology or yours (Are all Catholics as obnouxious as you?)
" While dia can indicate agency, it does not imply inferiority or dependence." - cite the exception..
"the Father is the source, the Son is the agent, and the Spirit is the perfecting force. " - So the Son is not the "creator" - The trinity as a whole is.
So instead of being misleading clear your language further, and Why does Tertullian not call the son the creator? Or Origen or Justin Martyr?
"The claim that Isa. 44:24 excludes the Son from creation is based on a misinterpretation of the text." - Where did I say it excludes the son - Where?
"Christ’s unity with the Father, as described in John 10:30 ("I and the Father are one"), refers to their shared divine essence, not merely cooperative action." - Where does it say that in John chapter 10, explicitly?
Church fathers use "essence" to also mean SOLELY union
"The claim that the angel in Rev. 22:13 speaks as "Alpha and Omega" misrepresents the text. The angel does not use this title for itself but conveys the words of God." - can you read.. it seems you cant
I said:
"Angels quote God almost verbatum most of the time.
note the Angel in Revelation says "I am the alpha and the omega"(1st person) while quoting what God said for it to tell John."
again do you read?
How can I be any more clearer?
"The argument that ego eimi could mean “I have been” ignores the theological implications of Jesus’ statement and the broader Johannine context." - nope, just yours..
"Comparisons to modern definitions of "divine," as suggested by your reference to a Google search, lack the necessary theological precision to engage with this discussion. " - yet you insist the modern meaning for "worship" must be applied to Christ. interesting double standard.
"Your argument conflates BeDuhn’s linguistic analysis with theological conclusions that he does not explicitly endorse." - I asked: Have you ever asked Beduhn what he meant by "divine"? No? so you cant impose YOUR meaning on Beduhns words - he likely means any dictionary definition - not your trinitarian definition.
"your claim that BeDuhn’s non-Trinitarian stance necessarily colors his interpretation of "divine" as something other than the full divinity of the Logos is speculative." - Shall I just email him and ask him then? I guarantee he does not mean the trinitarian sense - he is not a trinitarian for starters..
"The claim that the Greek present tense conveys timeless or continuous existence is not a baseless assertion." - sure Mr. quote miner sure.
"John 8:58 goes beyond mere continuity, implying eternality, as the predicate-less ego eimi conveys existence unbounded by time" - it does not, it simply states he existed sometime before Abraham, which is not specifically stated - and is going on up to now.
Eternal existance could be said another way.
The idea that "ego eimi" is parroting God in exodus is stupid, Even the LXX acknowledges that "the being" (Which would indicate eternal existence in that context)
The lXX in the very next sentence when God tells Moses to "parrot" him emphasizes " ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς"
NOT "I am" indicating "I am" wasn't the important part of the sentence.
"Your assertion that claiming Jesus' deity in John 8:58 is "opinion, not fact" fails to account for the Gospel's broader context." - I'm failing account for what you want me to account for... not this pre-conceived context you have in your head.
"This theological significance is why the Jews reacted with an attempt to stone Him—an act reserved for perceived blasphemy." - yes "perceived"
and why they asked "Who are you?"? straight after "I am"
Quote for the NIV -"[ ]" is used to highlight anything not in the original Greek or could not be understood from the original Greek ("He" is implied - LIKE Bible PRINCIPLES)
That is why I told you that you would die in your sins. For unless you believe that I am* [He], you will die in your sins.”
25“Who are You?” they asked.
* Greek (8:24):
εἶπον οὖν ὑμῖν ὅτι ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν· ἐὰν γὰρ μὴ πιστεύσητε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι, ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν.
"The choice of ego eimi rather than a past tense verb like ēmēn (“I was”) " - If Jesus used a past tense verb, the idoim wouldnt work and would imply, most likely, that the "event" before Abraham, had finished
"The argument that “Son of God” does not imply deity is inconsistent with Jewish understanding. In first-century Jewish thought, claiming to be the "Son of God" often implied equality with God, as seen in John 5:18." - equality with God and being God are 2 totally seperate things in Jewish thought
" they never claimed intrinsic authority to forgive sins" - are you sure about that? One of the Prophets infact did.
"Lastly, your claim that Catholic interpretations are selective or lack credibility " - I claimed yours, not Catholics in general - Catholics I speak too don't troll on the internet and comment under insulting usernames.. They have honour and credibility - you don't
"The interpretation of John 8:58 as a declaration of deity is not a modern invention but has been affirmed by Church Fathers like Augustine and Athanasius, as well as ecumenical councils like Nicaea and Chalcedon. " - these mean literally nothing to me.. I couldn't care less, what Atha has to say on any subject.
"Your insistence on explicit passages ignores the nature of biblical revelation, which often conveys truths through cumulative and interconnected evidence. " - LOL, so why do you ask The Witnesses for just one explicit passage or myself?
you have double standards.