AQ - can you read? or do you need to go back to primary school?
"which undermines the general rejection you initially implied." - Its moe you just cant read..
"For instance, in Romans 11:36, Paul writes, "For from Him and through [dia] Him and to Him are all things." Here, dia is used for God’s agency in creation, clearly not implying inferiority. " - but here, its being used as the source not as for the channel of an act.
"The Greek phrase choris autou ("without Him") is an absolute negation, leaving no room for exceptions." - We have similar instances elsewhere.. adn again I dont beleive Christ is like teh rest of creation - To me is both "created" and "uncreated" (Philo's concept) not made from nothing but made from Gods wn "substance" i.e Like Eve was made from Adam
(Begotten essentially - without brothers or sisters, stilll wouldnt make him God tho)
"However, the implication of your argument—that creation is attributed solely to the Father" - t does, The Father is thought of as the Creator (to the cited churh fathers, which you ignore.)
To Daniel Wallace who says:
see GGBTB page 434 (John 1:3)
and here: https://www.google.co.nz/books/edition/Greek_Grammar_Beyond_the_Basics/XlqoTVsk2wcC?hl=en&gbpv=1
and A.T Robertson here:
" (δι' αυτου). By means of him as the intermediate agent in the work of creation. The Logos is John's explanation of the creation of the universe. The author of Hebrews (Hebrews 1:2) names God's Son as the one "through whom he made the ages." Paul pointedly asserts that "the all things were created in him" (Christ) and "the all things stand created through him and unto him" (Colossians 1:16). Hence it is not a peculiar doctrine that John here enunciates. In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul distinguishes between the Father as the primary source (εξ ου) of the all things and the Son as the intermediate agent as here (δι' ου)."
(https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/john-1.html)
: "As the intermediate and sustaining agent. He had already used εν αυτω (in him) as the sphere of activity."
(https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/colossians-1.html)
you misrepresent both of these citations
" it would be prudent to frame your questions carefully, distinguishing between his linguistic analysis and his personal theological views." - I have literally linked to your claims on the subject and asked him if he would agree with your statements about his claims of being "Divine" and your clarification on what that means (synonym for deity)..
If not - you lied. and I will expose you for it. in a seperate post.
yes Beduhn did agree that "theos" was qualiative but what else did he say on thsi Subject? you are omitting information to suit YOUR agenda.
He also talks about "theos" being a catergory. Before and after his "basic agreement" with Harner.
"BeDuhn does not endorse a polytheistic/henotheistic interpretation" - You are being so selective on this: https://www.google.co.nz/books/edition/Truth_in_Translation/if2ACgAAQBAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1
have you actaully read Beduhns book? I doubt it.
"John 10:30’s statement, "I and the Father are one," uses the neuter hen to express unity in essence, not merely cooperative action. " - But they were not the same "essense" (your meaning) at this time, were they? Jesus was both God and Man
God was only a spirit. (count noun NOT mass noun.)
"However, his prior work already suggests that his preferred translation, "divine," is open to interpretation and does not necessarily support Jehovah’s Witness theology. Even if BeDuhn is non-Trinitarian" - it invalidates your claim he means your trinitarian "divine" sense.
"Stripping these texts of their theological context results in incomplete interpretations." - Im happy to do this with anyone, except a theologically motivated troll who has 0 crediibility
"which is inconsistent with Jehovah’s Witness theology that restricts worship to the Father." - John 4:24
"The angel quoting "Alpha and Omega" does not attribute this title to itself but conveys the words of Christ, as seen in the consistent use of the title for God or Jesus in Revelation (1:8, 21:6, 22:13)." - contexts indicate how these terms are meant. One is for God, onse is for teh one who died.
When did I say it did?
you say I misunderstand alot, can you read?
What did I say... repeat it back to me..
"its predicate-less structure conveys eternal existence." - there is also such a thing as an implied predicate as the NIV shows
"The predicate-less ego eimi is a deliberate echo of the divine name revealed in Exodus 3:14" - prove it, the LXX evidence would say otherwise.
" However, this question does not diminish Jesus’ declaration but reflects their ongoing confusion and rejection of His claims." - Or another possibility is they didnt understand "ego eimi" as a divine name at all.. Why would they at first ask who are you?
but in the very next instance understand it as a quote from Ex 3:14?
claiming to have lived long enough to see Abraham would have been quite enough to provoke the crowds violent reaction.
""The Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins."" - because he was given it.
"The phrase ego eimi in John 8:58 carries the same theological resonance as ho on" - then we would expect the LXX to repeat the entirety of God's [claimed] name - not just the later.
" In John 5:18, the Jews accuse Jesus of "making Himself equal with God," showing that this title was understood as a divine claim. " - so to them God was someone else. as they only accused him of equality with God, NOT being God.
"Finally, your claim of double standards regarding explicit passages misunderstands the nature of biblical revelation. Trinitarian doctrine emerges from the cumulative evidence of Scripture, not isolated proof texts. When asking for explicit passages from Jehovah’s Witnesses, the request addresses their specific claims, such as Jesus being Michael the Archangel" - I can use the same argument... this is an excuse not a valid reason.