I have no iron in this fire and this is not even really "my subject" to be honest. It really doesn't matter to me if the correct date is 587 or 607, but there's things I honestly don't understand on this thread. (Which drives me up the wall...)
On page 8, Rattigan350 said:
It was Nelson Barbour in 1881 that added the 20 years because he thought 587 would lead to a 50 year desolation.
In Three Worlds, Barbour starts with 536 BC, which he believed to be the first year of Cyrus, and counts back 70 years to arrive at 606 BC. Barbour was neither the first, nor the last to rely at least partially upon Ussher's Annales Veteris Testamenfi because the cuneiform artifacts which have caused the disagreement discussed on this thread were still being unearthed at the time.
1881 was a few years after Barbour's separation from Russell, so I am curious about the captioned statement above, and what, if any, connection it has to the JW's. Barbour faded off into obscurity and eventually lost interest in the Adventist approach, from what I understand.
On page 16 of this thread, Fisherman said:
How does concluding that Judah went captive to Babylon
for 70 years and Zion lay desolate for 70 years, The 70 years ended when
the king of Babylon saw the handwriting on the wall goes against
grammar?
By my calculation (Again, perhaps wrong) this would have been the 68th year, which does not strike me as a simple, direct and grammatical reading of Jeremiah 25:12
"But when 70 years have been fulfilled..." NWT
"και εν τω πληρωθήναι τα εβδομήκοντα έτη..." LXX
"...וְהָיָה כִמְלֹאות שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָה אֶפְקֹד" MT
All three phrases require posteriority of the condition(s) they reference and it would take a clever explanation indeed to overcome that fact. Even then, it would not be a simple, plain reading.
I don't want to argue, but I am (understandably) curious.