Quote - Your inferring they must have used Gods personal
name because they quoted an OT scripture is just interpretation on your part –
End quote
smiddy, I don’t know if you saw what I said to
blondie but here it is again:
[just as you can tell me that I can't say for
certain that the originals and those that followed up until the oldest now on
hand did have the DN there, I can tell you that you can't say for certain that
it was not there.]
So you are saying that my inferring that God’s
personal name was used when they quoted from the OT is just interpretation on
my part. Okay, so can you say for certain that the DN was not written at all in
the originals? If you say it was not written, then is that speculation on your
part as well?
Quote -. We have the words of Jesus written
down, as we do with the Apostles and the Disciples and not one of them is
recorded as uttering the personal name of God as Jehovah. - End quote
Again, you are saying based on the copies on
hand that the name is not recorded as being said but can you say for certain
that the DN was not written at all in the originals?
When you say we have the words of Jesus written
down that would included his words saying:
"The
works I do in my Father’s name"
“I’ve made your name known to them and will
continue to make it known"
“I have revealed your name to the people you
gave me from this world.”
“This is eternal life: to know you, the only
true God, and Jesus Christ whom you sent”
Based on that, do you find it reasonable that
when Jesus and his apostles did quote from the Hebrew Scriptures that they
would have said the name?
If you do not believe they
used the name, then can you tell me what reason they would have had to refrain
from using it?
