"However, Bruce M. Metzger wrote in his Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament: "No uncial (in the first hand) earlier than the eigth or ninth century ... supports [theos]; all ancient versions presuppose [hos] or [ho]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century testifies to the reading [theos]." Today, most translations show their disagreement with the KJV by omitting any reference to "God" in this text. Today, most translations show their disagreement with the KJV by omitting any reference to "God" in this text."
Am I really supposed to believe that this passage of Scripture is a mistranslation just because you say it is? I'm sure there are many other scholars out there who say different. Yes, other translations omit the word God, but they weren't translated from the Textus Receptus. All the literal translations and then some say "God was manifest in the flesh."
"Revelation 1:8 - It is plain from simply reading this verse that the Father, not Jesus, is the Alpha and Omega and the Lord God Almighty. Jesus is never called the Lord God Almighty. How do you answer this, SwedishChef?"
I really have no idea where you got this from. From the first time I read this verse it was plain and clear that Jesus is talking. You know how? By reading it in context. Revelation 1:7 "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen." Who did they pierce? Jesus. Who is talking in the very next verse? Jesus. Verse 8: "I am Alpha and Omega..."
"Genesis 1:26 - Trinitarians and JWs say that God was speaking here to Christ. However, the Jews have long held that God was speaking to "all the army of the heavens standing by him, to his right and to his left." (1 Ki 22:19-22; Job 38:7)"
The OT word most frequently used for God is plural in form.
Genesis 11:7,8 "Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech. So the LORD scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth: and they left off to build the city."
Now the LORD was the one who scattered them, but he says "let US go down".
Genesis 1:26 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:"
Now read this:
Genesis 9:6 Whoso sheddeth man's blood, by man shall his blood be shed: for in the image of God made he man.
It says man is made after the IMAGE OF GOD. It does not say the image of God and His angels.
Isaiah 6:8 Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, Whom shall I send, and who will go for US? Then said I, Here am I; send me.
"Matthew 28:19 - This verse simply mentions the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. It says nothing about them being God or equal persons within the Godhead. How do you answer this, SwedishChef? Or, as in all the examples above, are you unable to give an answer?"
"Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:" Notice how it says "in the name", and not "names"? That is because they are equal.
Philippians 2:6 Who,[Jesus] being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
"1 John 5:7 - Up above, Navigator gave a fine explanation of why this verse is not found in all the better translations. Why do you choose to ignore something so vital to knowing the truth about God and Christ? How do you answer this, SwedishChef? Could it be you have no answer?"
Notify me on what the "better translations" are. The KJV is practically a perfect translation of the Textus Receptus. The other text...the Nessels, I believe, was actually found in the Vatican. (some say in a garbage can). In any case, I wouldn't trust anything that comes out of there.