PoppyR:
I have always believed the bible compares well to history and it seems it does...it is the JWs that do not compare well with history and to say just because 70 years back from 537 is 607 therefore it's right.. implies to me that the 70 years interpretation is wrong
You`re absolutely right. And this is the point: NOWHERE in the OT, neither Jeremiah nor Daniel refers to the 70 years as a period where there would be no Temple, no people, no buildings, etc. The 70 years are spoken of as a period of "desolation, servitude and exile". That`s all. Nothing about "70 years with no Temple". Not even 70 years where the and would be completely desolate, in the sense "no people", which is clearly showed by Jeremiah:
Jeremiah 52:28 Nebuchadnezzar carried into exile: In the seventh year, 3,023 Jews; 52:29 in Nebuchadnezzar’s eighteenth year, 832 people from Jerusalem; 52:30 in Nebuchadnezzar’s twenty-third year, Nebuzaradan, captain of the royal guard, carried into exile 745 Jews.
The 70 years clearly refer to the period of Babylons power and influence over Judah and Jerusalem, not a period with no Temple. And even if 607 HAD been Nebuchadnessars 18th year (which it is not), that would mean that the period of "servitude and exile", which began at least no later than in Nebuchadnessars 7th year, would have lasted not 70 years, but some 81 years. So the WTS-interpretation is just ridicolous anyway. But within WTS-doctrine, it`s kind of important that there would be no Temple from 607, because in their doctrine, this would seem nice and symbolic as a "time of the gentiles", and then Christ would come back in 1914, quickly deciding that the WTS was the "one true religion", and then be declared as kind of a "new Temple", ha ha. Well, a "New Temple" in a country on the other side of the Atlantic from the original one, 2520 years later, on a continent no jew knew of at that time. Very good, WTS. HA ha
Well, the most ridicolous thing about this whole thing, is of course the "day for a year"-rule, which the WTS ripped out of its context in Ezekiel (which has to do with events happening 400 yeas before Babylon) and from the Torah (which has to do with things happening...what...1000 years before Babylon?) - and shoved it into their interpretation of Daniel and Jeremiah, although this "day for a year"-rule is NEVER mentioned in neither Daniel nor Jeremiah.