Can a divorcee remarry scripturally?

by rootofallevil 27 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

• 

  Poztate

  The WT teaches that someone who has gotten an unscriptural divorce (no adultery committed), may not ever remarry. If he/she does, they will be DFed.

  Yep...that is the teaching.There is a way around it. A "sister" got a divorce for abuse from hubby. What Now...She faced a lifetime of living alone unless hubby "remarried" and was DF'ed for it. She waited a few years and since the X never made a move she did. She started an affair and then confessed to it. She was DF'ed for a year and then reinstated. Married a MS and they have lived happily ever after....THE END..
• 

  YoursChelbie

  Romans 13 (New International Version)

  New International Version (NIV)

  Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society Romans 13

  Submission to the Authorities

  1 Everyone must submit himself to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God. 2 Consequently, he who rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted, and those who do so will bring judgment on themselves. 3 For rulers hold no terror for those who do right, but for those who do wrong. Do you want to be free from fear of the one in authority? Then do what is right and he will commend you. 4 For he is God's servant to do you good.

  On this basis, a Christian can Biblically obtain a "no fault divorce” if this provision is available in their locality.

  Upon paying the filing fee to the court and following thru with the legal proceedings, anyone can find relief for themselves of “irreconcilable differences" and be free from an unhappy marriage. In this way they can be free to legally marry in the future if they choose to do so.

  YC
• 

  JT

  Speaking of Divorce, because the JW are lead by men with no college education esp in the field of Greek, Hebrew, etc, they often end up getting the meanings of words Jacked up

  here is a perfect example of what happens when you have men who have no idea what Greek words actually mean

  keep in mind ONLY JW leaders came up with this explanation based on the Greek word porneía

  no other religion on the face of the earth came up with this Goofy dogma when they examined the Greek word porneía.

  After a jw wife catches her husband having sex with the family dog or the mailmain notice the questions from Readers and notice thier answser

  *** w72 1/1 31-2 Questions from Readers *** Questions from Readers

  ó Do homosexual acts on the part of a married person constitute a Scriptural ground for divorce, freeing the innocent mate to remarry?—U.S.A.

  Homosexuality is definitely condemned in the Bible as something that will prevent individuals from gaining God’s approval. (1 Cor. 6:9, 10) However, whether an innocent mate would Scripturally be able to remarry after procuring a legal divorce from a mate guilty of homosexual acts must be determined on the basis of what the Bible says respecting divorce and remarriage.

  In the Sermon on the Mount Jesus Christ said:.....

  While both homosexuality and bestiality are disgusting perversions, in the case of neither one is the marriage tie broken. It is broken only by acts that make an individual “one flesh” with a person of the opposite sex other than his or her legal marriage mate.

  #####################

  yep this was considered FOOD From God and was a DFing offense if the person REMARRIED

  you got to love it
• 

  Earnest

  Watchtower, 3/15 1983, p.30 :

  Defining "Fornication"

  What do we understand here by "fornication"? The Greek word in this text is porneia. In discussing the matter, The Watchtower of December 15, 1972, pages 766-768, showed that porneia "comes from a root word meaning ‘to sell.’" Thus it is tied in with prostitution, such as that practiced in many pagan temples in the first century and in ‘houses of ill fame’ today.

  True, porneia is sometimes used in a limited sense, as applying to sex relations between unmarried (single) persons. An instance of such a limited usage is 1 Corinthians 6:9, where "fornicators" are mentioned separately and in addition to those who engage in such other sexual vices as adultery and homosexuality. But just before this, at 1 Corinthians 5:9-11, Paul used the same word when counseling Christians not to mix with "fornicators." Is it reasonable to think that here he referred only to immoral unmarried persons? That could not be so, for chapter 6 sets out a broad range of illicit sexual practices that must be shunned, including adultery and homosexuality. Likewise, Jude 7 and Revelation 21:8, which show that God judges unrepentant "fornicators" as worthy of eternal destruction, could hardly be limited only to unmarried persons that have sex relations. And the Jerusalem governing body’s edict at Acts 15:29, "to keep abstaining . . . from fornication," must be understood to have the wide field of application.

  So, then, "fornication" in the broad sense, and as used at Matthew 5:32 and 19:9, evidently refers to a broad range of unlawful or illicit sex relations outside marriage. Porneia involves the grossly immoral use of the genital organ(s) of at least one human (whether in a natural or a perverted way); also, there must have been another party to the immorality—a human of either sex, or a beast. Thus, self-abuse (unwise and spiritually dangerous as this may be) is not porneia. But to this day, the term porneia embraces the various kinds of sexual activity that might take place in a house of prostitution, where sexual favors are bought and sold. A person who goes to a male or a female prostitute to buy any kind of sexual favors would be guilty of porneia.—Compare 1 Corinthians 6:18.

  Earnest
• 

  rootofallevil

  While both homosexuality and bestiality are disgusting perversions, in the case of neither one is the marriage tie broken. It is broken only by acts that make an individual “one flesh” with a person of the opposite sex other than his or her legal marriage mate.

  Although it seems there is no scriptural way around it, this quote helps with shooting down the credibility of the WT. This alone may help my friend undestand that he shouldn't put much stock in what the WT teaches.

  Imagine that.

  According to the WT, if you fornicated with another person of the same sex, this would not constitute grounds for a scriptural divorce, because the marriage tie is only broken by acts that make an individual "one flesh" with someone of the opposite sex to whom they are not married to.

  Am I understanding this correctly? This is too crazy!!!
• 

  Es

  welcome to the board

  es
• 

  Earnest

  JT : While both homosexuality and bestiality are disgusting perversions, in the case of neither one is the marriage tie broken. It is broken only by acts that make an individual “one flesh” with a person of the opposite sex other than his or her legal marriage mate.

  The reasoning in the QFR in the 1972 Watchtower JT refers to is :

  The Greek word for fornication is porneía. It can refer to illicit sexual relations between either married or unmarried persons. The ancient Greeks, in rare instances, may have understood this term to denote acts other than illicit sexual intercourse between a man and a woman. But the sense in which Jesus used the word porneía at Matthew 5:32 and 9:9 must be ascertained from the context.

  It should be noted that in Matthew chapters 5 and 19 "fornication" is used in the restricted sense of marital unfaithfulness, or illicit relations with another person not one’s marriage mate. Just before bringing up the matter of divorce in the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus Christ pointed out that "everyone [married] that keeps on looking at a woman so as to have a passion for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart." (Matt. 5:28) Consequently, when he afterward alluded to a woman’s committing fornication, his listeners would have understood this in its relative sense, namely, as signifying a married woman’s prostitution or adultery.

  However, in 1983 this understanding was revised as referred to in my post above. The relevant part of the paragraph reads :

  So, then, "fornication" in the broad sense, and as used at Matthew 5:32 and 19:9, evidently refers to a broad range of unlawful or illicit sex relations outside marriage. Porneia involves the grossly immoral use of the genital organ(s) of at least one human (whether in a natural or a perverted way); also, there must have been another party to the immorality—a human of either sex, or a beast.

  Earnest
• 

  LittleToe

  Fortunately, while we can tie ourselves up in knots with the "law", grace is sufficient...
• 

  Earnest

  With respect, LT...and you know my respect is sincere...when it comes to a vow one has made it is important to understand when one is released from that vow.
• 

  LittleToe

  ...and it's also important to understand when a vow has dissolved outwith your own efforts to keep it