You will find that Jesus as mentioned before was changed from his Hebrew name "Yahushua" ( which means Yah saves or yah is salvation) into the greek transliteration "iesous".
It was further transliterated again into the Latin name "iesus" which was the way it was spelt in the original Translation of the king James bible. The Letter "J" was never used in the Hebrew language. In fact the letter "J" only came into existence in the English alphabet in the 16th century or there abouts.
Also the name Jehovah which is supposed to be Gods Literal hebrew name transliterated from the Tetragrammaton cannot be the correct spelling or pronunciation. If the letter J did not exist in the Hebrew language or writings and wasnt even in the English alphabet untill about the 16th century, How can his name be correct??
If you do some research on the name "yahushua" and the name "Yahweh". You will find a lot of startling truths about why these names are important.
I am not saying for an absolute certain that Gods name is "Yahweh" but all the evidence seems to point in that direction. Think about the first part of his name when we think of the expression Hallelujah (praise be to Jah) in the book of Psalms. Change the "J" to "Y" and you have "praise be to Yah" which is the shortened name of God.
There are quite a number of sites that go into this topic a lot deeper. Please have a look as you will truly be amazed to find the "Truth" on this matter.
Is Gods correct name pronounced Jehovah?? What about the messiahs name?
by evergreen 39 Replies latest watchtower bible
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evergreen
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GodisRight
Jehoshua = JAH - Shoe - AH JAH = Yahushua ???
GodisRight....I don't follow what you just wrote at all. Somehow you try to convert "Jehoshua" into "Yahushua" (and how you do this is inexplicable to me), but as I stated in my last post, "Yahushua" is not how the name is vowel-pointed (in Numbers 13:16, for instance), and the Hebrew version of the name is clearly "Y e hoshu`a").
It's not that I converted Jehoshua into Yahushua, it is the other way around. There is no "G" sound in original hebrew as in "George", "Jeep" or "Jehovah." JWS and the West have converted "y"s in to "J"s
Davids friend Johnathan is actually Yahnathan. It was common practice for Isrealites to name their children with God's short name included. Jeremiah and Isaiah for example have the "yah" sound at the end of their name as "i" was also converted from "y"
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GodisRight
Notice that in Ntnyhw "Netanyahu" the theophoric element lacks the final he; this facilitates the mater lectionis usage of the preceding waw. Thus, yhwh is not yhuh as you have it because there is a final he!
Only God's short name was used by the Hebrews in naming their children. I don't believe they would actually try to inlclude God's full name inside of their child's name.
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GodisRight
Leolaia did you read evergreen's latest post under this topic? He is basically saying the samething that I am saying. Check it out. I think his post clears up the point I am trying to make.
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Leolaia
did you read evergreen's latest post under this topic? He is basically saying the samething that I am saying. Check it out. I think his post clears up the point I am trying to make.
No, actually, he's making a different set of points than I have been making. I was calling attention to your erroneous characterization of "Jehoshua" as Aramaic rather than Hebrew. I have been pointing out, and am still pointing out, that this is indeed the Masoretic Hebrew version of the name. Yahushu`a may well have been another (or more accurate) Hebrew pronunciation, but this does not render "Yehoshua" as Aramaic instead of Hebrew.
It's not that I converted Jehoshua into Yahushua, it is the other way around. There is no "G" sound in original hebrew as in "George", "Jeep" or "Jehovah." JWS and the West have converted "y"s in to "J"s
This has nothing to do with what I was talking about. I have been talking about the vowels, about how you turn Yehoshua into Yahushua. Please read my post again.
Davids friend Johnathan is actually Yahnathan.
Oh what basis? This is another unsupported claim that disagrees with the facts; the name is spelled yhwntn and ywntn in Hebrew..."Yahnathan" omits the waw that is found in BOTH versions. What you seem to be doing is blindly inserting "Yah" wherever the actual theophoric element is in the name, i.e. JAH -Shoe - AH for Hebrew Y e hoshu`a (yhwsh`), Jahnathan for Y e honathan (yhwntn), etc. I don't know why you are doing this, but this is contrary to the actual spelling of the names in the text itself.
Only God's short name was used by the Hebrews in naming their children. I don't believe they would actually try to inlclude God's full name inside of their child's name.
Yes, that is certainly true, but also irrelevant to the point I was making. YHWH is not really yhuh as if the full name had a mater lectionis with a following he. The shortened name in Netanyahu is different and the vocalization cannot be applied to the full name.
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Narkissos
I'll try to break it down in case it helps:
Theophoric elements in Hebrew names have different consonantic forms:
- in prefixes, yhw- or yw-;
- in suffixes, -yhw or -yh.
In the middle-ages Masoretic vowel-pointing their pronunciation is indicated as:
- in prefixes, yhw- = y(e)ho-, yw- = yo-;
- in suffixes, -yhw = -yahu, -yh = -ya(h).
This may or may not reflect the older pronunciation. For instance, it is possible (although by no means certain) that the ancient pronunciation of the common yhw in both prefixes and suffixes was yaho (as the final -u in suffixes may be a secondary development influenced by Akkadian cuneiform writing in which the final -o is written -u). It is also possible that the shorter form yw was pronounced yaw rather than yo. However, yah- never occurs as a prefix, nor -yaw as a suffix.
The case of "Joshua" is particular, for shortly after the exile the majoritary writing skips from yhwshw` to yshw` (in Masoretic vowel-pointing, from yehoshua` to yeshua`), the latter (where the explicit theophoric element disappears) being the direct basis for the Greek transliteration Ièsous. (For instance, "Joshua" the high priest of the Judean restoration is yhwshw` in Haggai and Zechariah, and yshw` in Ezra-Nehemiah.)
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Leolaia
Thanks Narkissos....I hope that helps explain what I was getting at.
BTW, there is no final waw in the last syllable of "Joshua" as far as I can see (i.e. yhwsh` in Zechariah 3:3).
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Narkissos
there is no final waw in the last syllable of "Joshua" as far as I can see
Oops... you're right.
(Except in Deuteronomy 3:21; Judges 2:7 but this is an exception.)
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moggy lover
Our current understanding of the pronunciation of Hebrew names in the OT is almost totally dependant on the exacting and exhaustive work employed by the Masoretes, [Jewish scholars living between 500 - 1000 AD] who went to extraordinary lengths to supply the vowel equivalents required for these names. Rendering these same names into regional and national nominatives has been made possible only insofar as our dependance on the massoretes is accepted.
Hence "Ezekiel" "Jeremiah" etc, thanks to the endeavours of the Massoretes, are not figments or randomized collections of sounds, but represent, in as accurate a form as is possible, the names of the persons involved.
However, one name did elude the Massoretes. The Tetragrammaton, YHVH. In this place the Massoretes utilized the vowels for the Hebrew "Adohnai" the intention being, not to combine the consonants of YHVH with the vowels of "Adohnai" thus creating a hybrid or mongrelized sound meaning neither, but simply to accept that "Adohnai" was what intended to be pronounced. It would be doing an injustice to the Massoretes, and misunderstanding their intentions by pronouncing the Tetragrammaton in ways other than their prescription. We cannot accept their scholarasticism in all the other names in the OT yet deny their authority in this one word, simply because we choose to disagree with them. It was not some sort of "Jewish tradition" that led the Masoretes to do this, but a devout understanding of the sacredness of the Divine Name.
The point is that YHVH is unpronouceable. In our attempts to articulate the unpronounceable we are forced, like the Massoretes, to employ "surrogates" What seems to escape the dogmatism of the WTS, is that "jehovah" is a surrogate, as much a surrogate as "LORD" is, or "Yahweh" and no more represents the "name" of God than these substitutes. If the WTS accepts the integrity of the NT text, as they so deceitfully claim, then they would be forced to admit that The Holy Spirit Himself accepted the use of "Lord" as a perfectly acceptable equivalent for the OT YHVH
Does the WTS seriously believe that using the term "Father" ensures an ignoring of Divine attention, without the repetitive use of "jehovah"?
Leolaia - Would it be possible for you to post the articles you mentioned earlier,[the ones written by Rutherford and Franz] or are they copyrighted or something. They would be most interesting to study
Cheers
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evergreen
Another point , i would like to make , If you check out a few scriptures ie Acts 7:44,45 and Hebrews 4:7.
You will clearly see that these scriptures are refering to Joshua. In fact check out several bibles, they all refer to Joshua. Now look at the King james version ( can be viewed online if you dont have that version). Whose name do you see there???
Why have they put Jesus in those scriptures instead of Joshua as in other Bibles. Simple, because both Jesus and Joshua were both from the same name Yahushua. Jesus transliterated back to the Hebrew from Greek/Latin is Yahushua.
If as we see in other Bibles the name Joshua, then The name Jesus should also be referred to as Joshua coming from yoshua, yahshua, yahushua( Hope im not confusing everyone).