Another point to consider,
When Paul claimed that all scriptures are inspired, what scriptures was he refering to? The Bible as we know it today came about in the Council of Nicae. The books of the new testament were....voted in. Obviously Paul could not have been talking about (all sriptures) the Bible as we know it today.
Obviously he could not have been making the claim that his letters were part of those inspired scriptures.
He was obviously refering to the OT. But I have my reservations about their divine inspiration.
When Moses wrote (he is claimed to be the writer of the first 5 books of the OT) the account in Genesis, he actually wrote it nearly 2500 years after what supposedly happened in the garden of Eden.
How can we cling to one word or phrase from that account, after it was handed down from generatiuon to generation until Moses came along nearly 2500 years later? I don't remember what I had for dinner last night! If he was the writer of these first five books, how can he write about his own...funeral arrangements (forgive me but I don't remember the verse)?
That's my 2 cents worth.