A remarkable statement which disagrees with the Jonsson hypothesis is the fact that "In Zechariah, Jeremiah is not mentioned, although the book has signs of Jeremianic influence" on page 109 of Applegate's study. Jonsson in his 4th edn GTR, p.227 claims that "the seventy years mentioned in the text do not refer to the prophecy of Jeremiah'.
(1) There is a difference between saying whether the specific "seventy years" in Zechariah is an allusion to Jeremiah, and whether the book as a whole is influenced by Jeremiah. Treating both of these things as the same thing is like saying "Some Australians like skinny dipping, Neil McFadzen is Australian, therefore Neil McFadzen likes skinny-dipping". (Maybe you do, who knows?). In order to treat the two as equivalent, you should have instead quoted something that states that the "seventy years" of Zechariah is an allusion to Jeremiah, or reinterprets Jeremiah. (2) Second of all, this is an entirely "unremarkable" statement. Are you totally unaware of the critical literature on Zechariah, or is it a brand new idea to you that the author(s) of Zechariah reflect the language and thought of Jeremiah? For instance, in 1897, S. R. Driver (Introduction to the Literature of the Old Testament, New York: Scribner's Sons) wrote "Hengstenberg, Stade, and others seek to support the same conclusion as to the date of Zech. 9-11, by pointing to passages in which the author is dependent upon earlier prophecies (esp. those of Jer and Ez.).* | *Comp. 9 2b-4 , Ez. 28 3.4.8b .... --10 3 , Jer 23 2b , Ez. 34 17 (the he-goats). --10 5b (riders on horses), Ez. 38 15 . --10 8b , Jer. 23 3b . --10 9a , Jer. 31 27 . ... --11 3a , Jer. 25 36 . -- 11 3b , Jer. 12 5 ("the pride of Jordan"). --11 4b , Jer. 12 3 ("flock ... slaughter"). --11 5a , Jer. 50 7a ." (p. 351). Saying that "the book has signs of Jeremianic influence" is nothing at all new, tho perhaps new to you.
With this false conclusion along with others it is easily discerned how Jonsson and his cronies have got the seventy years so wrong.
I notice you're citing the statement from Applegate as a "proof-text". Jonsson says one thing, Applegate says another thing, Jonsson is not a scholar while Applegate is, ergo Jonsson's conclusion is "false". This uncritical use of Applegate, without engaging substantially with the evidence and reasoning that he uses, is quite typical of the way the Society cites scientists and secular writers in the Creation book while avoiding the arguments and evidence in the same sources that do not help their case. Why is it when Applegate seemingly contradicts Jonsson, the "Jonsson hypothesis" (as you so lovingly term it) is proven false, and yet if Applegate says something that supports Jonsson or contradicts your own beliefs, you simply say that you "do not agree with everything the article says". What's good for the goose is good for the gander, if we're playing with proof-texts.
I do not agree with everything the article says but many of Applegate's conclusions concur with that of the celebrated WT scholars and 'scholar' himself.
Such as? How about list them for us? Or even better.... is it at all in your ability to summarize the article's arguments and give a fair representation of it (i.e. like an "abstract")?
This paper was either ignored or by its omission from Jonsson's 4th edition of his GTR on the grounds of research incompetence and overides his somewhat dogmatic interpretation of the seventy years.
If that is so, then "WT scholars" are many more times remiss for never discussing, or even mentioning, many of the critically important evidences cited by Jonsson and found in standard chronological works. Remember about what's good for the goose is good for the...oh right, you already hold "WT scholars" to a much lower standard. They don't have to mention the Egibi Bros. archive, the astronomical diary B.M. 32312, the Saros cycle tablets, the Hillah Stele, etc., and they don't have to explain the actual evidence itself from Nabon. H 1, B, VAT 4956, business/administrative records, etc. It's not "research incompetence" for the Society to set all of that aside and continue to attack the strawman of "Ptolemy's Canon" as if that were still critical to Neo-Babylonian chronology.
On page 92 the scholar stated "In 25:12 it moves to the punishment of Babylon after seventy years" followed by the observation on page 96 " 25:12 prophesies that Babylon will be punished and desolated after seventy years". Nowhere in this study is an application of 539 BCE in reference to Jeremiah 25:12 so the interpretation of matters as presented by the celebrated ones and yours truly has at last been vindicated.
LOL, another uncritical citation of Applegate as a proof-text! Tell me, what exegesis does Applegate give of the 70 years within the context of Jeremiah 25 and the later reference in Jeremiah 29? How about give us a clear picture of what Applegate's analysis is, rather than quote tiny snippits of it. Does the author actually say that the 70 years are construed as still running after 539 BC, or rule out an interpretation that views the events of 539 BC as corresponding to the "punishment"?