thirdwitless wrote in post # 306:
: Alan F: Having received all authority after his resurrection, Jesus could not possibly be appointed to a higher position or have received additional authority. All means all -- except perhaps in that fantasy land of Jehovah's Witnesses.
: Does all authority mean he was now over Jehovah also. All means all, right?
Frank debunked your stupid argument with 1 Corinthians 15:27. This idiotic argument is rendered even more ridiculous by the NWT's rendering of Colossians 1:15-20, which says about Jesus:
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; 16 because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist, 18 and he is the head of the body, the congregation. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that he might become the one who is first in all things; 19 because [God] saw good for all fullness to dwell in him, 20 and through him to reconcile again to himself all [other] things by making peace through the blood [he shed] on the torture stake, no matter whether they are the things upon the earth or the things in the heavens.
Fred Franz obviously took some pains to make sure that the reader understood that the word "all" was with the exception of God himself. Obviously, Matthew 28:18 must be understood in the same way. Jesus said: "All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth." Even the statement itself makes it clear that God was excepted, because the authority was GIVEN to Jesus. By who? Obviously by someone higher in authority than he.
But you already know all this, so your argument is a deliberate attempt to deceive. Or perhaps you just don't know your Bible. Which is it?
: So God is a Trinity, right?
Without the insertion of "[other]" in Colossians 1:15-20, God is proved a Trinity, right?
: And how do you explain Daniel 7:13,14, "13 I kept on beholding in the visions of the night, and, see there! with the clouds of the heavens someone like a son of man happened to be coming; and to the Ancient of Days he gained access, and they brought him up close even before that One. 14 And to him there were given rulership and dignity and kingdom, that the peoples, national groups and languages should all serve even him. His rulership is an indefinitely lasting rulership that will not pass away, and his kingdom one that will not be brought to ruin."
Not a problem. Let's let the Bible answer. On the night before his death, Jesus faced his accusers and told them: "I say to YOU men, From henceforth YOU will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of power and coming on the clouds of heaven." (Matthew 26:64); "YOU persons will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of power and coming with the clouds of heaven." (Mark 14:62); "From now on the Son of man will be sitting at the powerful right hand of God." (Luke 22:69) According to the Gospel accounts, Jesus was then killed and, two days later, resurrected. Shortly after his resurrection, Jesus told his followers: "All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth." (Matthew 28:18) The writer of Philippians said that Jesus' prediction about his being exalted and receiving all authority had been fulfilled: "For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every [other] name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father." (Philippians 2:9-11) Obviously, all these passages are consistent with one another, and equally obviously, Philippians uses language virtually identical to that in Daniel 7:13, 14 to describe Jesus' exalted and supreme position as ruler over everything. Therefore, this passage in Daniel must have been fulfilled shortly after Jesus' resurrection.
: Revelation 12:10: “Now have come to pass ...the power and the kingdom of our God and the authority of his Christ, because the accuser of our brothers has been hurled down,
Obviously, this simply means that both God and Christ would at some future time begin exercising the supreme power they already had over the world of mankind.
In view of this scripture, your argument that Matthew 28:18 does not mean what it says when it states that Jesus had received "all authority" is ridiculous, because God has always had supreme power, yet Revelation describes the power and kingom of God as coming to pass.
: Luke 19 “A certain man of noble birth traveled to a distant land to secure kingly power for himself and to return. 13 Calling ten slaves of his he gave them ten mi´nas and told them, ‘Do business till I come.’ 15 “Eventually when he got back after having secured the kingly power,
You neglected the crucial introduction to this passage, from verse 11. Here Jesus tries to show his listerners why his kingom's visible appearance would not take place immediately, because they "were imagining that the kingdom of God was going to display itself instantly." He told them, in effect, "No, it's going to be awhile." He gave no indication of how long he would delay. Therefore, in view of the scriptures I've quoted above, verses 12-15 are not to be taken as a literal description of events that were to happen, but an illustration, an analogy that showed that there would be a delay before Jehovah and Jesus began exercising their power in a supremely good way toward the world of mankind. Even though Philippians 2:9-11 clearly states that Jesus had already been supremely exalted and that "every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground", certainly not "every knee" was bending to Jesus at the time Philippians was written. Therefore, the bending of knees by all to Jesus was yet future, even though he had received "all authority". The same concept applies to Luke 19.
I'm going to be busy with many things for several days, but will answer your typically stupid post # 305 as I'm able. It's as easy to debunk as your post here, but will take a good deal longer.
AlanF