lil
You are interpreting the scriptures according to our modern day views.
Yup! Woman are not property and have rights.
I would like to point out too that this verse is not actually saying this scenario took place. The law was strict to be a deterant to the wrong behavior. As far as young girls being married very young, that was also the norm back then
Sorry Llly, you are the first person I have ever met who has argued that 'rape', or 'seduction' or 'coitus without familial approval' did not happen because there was a strict law. You must know this claim was, has and never will be credible. Why make it then? That's not a rhetorical question, I'd like an explanation of why you answer up in an illogical fashion you must KNOW is illogical to defend a book? Areyou prehaps mistaking 'god' for the book?
And chasity of virgins was much more valuable, then it is in our modern day culture.
The RIGHTS of virgins are more valuable in modern day culture.
The value of virgins has always been high; on certain occasions during the Isaelite's ethnic cleansing of Israel (the Mosaic one not the current one), the soldiers were commanded to kill everyone or thing APART from virgin girls. As you point out, these would have been very young; most 14 year-olds were married.
Now, I understand you're a believer, which is fine. But what about actually standing up for your Holy Book rather than using a clever argument? Or better still, being realisitic about its limits? Believing in god and the Bible's inerrancy are two different things you know!
With your degree of Biblical knowledge you must know of the above instances. I don't think you are stupid; you would not believe that these children, having seen their families hacked to death in front of them by soldiers, would then willingy become the sex slaves of the very same men. Yet under the Mosaic Law they could be so treated - although you might object to 'sex slave', I am sure a girl taken as spoils of war and then raped by the man who killed her family would feel that 'concubine' was a little too fluffy-sounding to cover the despair and fear they felt.
Only with the most careful and selective reading can you avoid coming to the obvious conclusion that (according to the Bible) god's appointed man on the sport, without being told afterwards it was bad or being censured in ANY way, authorised what in 'modern day culture' would be seen as a war crimes, rape, kidnapping, and human trafficing.
I am curious; when I read this I think; "Well, that pretty much shows this portion of the Bible is a history book about a violent unpleasent people who justified their territorial greed (and lust) by saying their invasion was sanctioned by god."
To think god would sanction such things requires belief in a monster I do not find credible; if I had more belief in god I'd actually regarded it as blasphemous and sick that anyone could think god would do that, instead of accepting the Bible is not inspired of god.
How do you justify your interpretation?