It's interesting that all through the Old Testament you find God saying that there are no other god's but Him, and that He only is to be worshipped, yet in Daniel 7:13 you find "one like a son of man" coming before the "Ancient of Days" and all of creation turning to this "one like a son of man" and worshipping him...right in front of the Ancient of Days. If God is a Trinity this is not a problem, and not a contradiction. By the way in John 9:35-38 when Christ admitted to being the Son of Man, the person Jesus was talking to immediately worshipped him.
Any Supporting Scriptures for the Trinity in the OLD Testament?
by eclipse 32 Replies latest watchtower bible
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greendawn
There obviously wouldn't be any, the Jews who wrote it thought of their God as one individual in one, as it were, and the three in one concept was totally alien to them, developed much later by Christians to resolve the theological crisis of having (at least apparently) two Gods.
To this day the Jews perceive God as just one whereas most Christians claim that the Yahveh of the Jews is the same as their Trinitarian God, the three in one. -
Witness 007
STARK- Daniel 7;13 and John 9;38 Many Trinity bibles say "Worship" when the correct term is "bow down" or "prostrate." The Greek term is Prosky-neo. When would you bow down to someone in the bible? The King of Israel., the Prophets of God, or even a foreign king, {Like Pharoah}. When Jews prostrated themselves before King Solomon or Elijah the prophet, they were not worshipping these men but showing respect to Jehovahs Prophet/king the same is with Jesus...he just told someone "Iam the Son of God..." -Bow.
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Witness 007
Oh and Duputy Dog you didn't say...did my point make sense to you? I can get the whole article if you want, but my short answer is thats a grammar issue like in 1 kings "Solomon called the people to ..Solomon." This is the only part you didnt comment on!
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Deputy Dog
00
Could you please provide chapter and verse? I've looked through several translations and can't find your quote.
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Narkissos
DD: 1 Kings 8:1: Then Solomon assembled the elders of Israel and all the heads of the tribes, the leaders of the ancestral houses of the Israelites, before King Solomon in Jerusalem, to bring up the ark of the covenant of the LORD out of the city of David, which is Zion.
This -- as well as your example with Yhwh -- may be explained away as a gloss, as "before King Solomon" seems to be absent from the original LXX; otoh comparative stylistics shows that Biblical Hebrew is much more tolerant of such repetitions than Greek or English (and earlier Ugaritic, for instance, much more than Biblical Hebrew). So reading theology into such phrasing is, indeed, rather moot.
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glenster
The research I have on it so far is on pp.4 and 7-10 of "GTJ Brooklyn" at the
next link. It covers some of the concerns preceding the NT related to that.
http://www.freewebs.com/glenster1/gtjbrooklynindex.htm -
Deputy Dog
Nark
This -- as well as your example with Yhwh -- may be explained away as a gloss,
Does a "gloss" explain away the Man (on earth) named "Jehovah" (who promised Abraham that He would destroy Sodom) that Abraham was speaking to just prior to this event in Genesis chapter 18?
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Deputy Dog
00
If Narks has the right verse, you are right, I fail to see your point.
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Narkissos
DD: It doesn't need to be a gloss (i.e. a comment later inserted into the text) -- btw, here the LXX has both occurrences of kurios. My main point was that the repetition is not unusual, hence not particularly meaningful, in Biblical Hebrew.
More importantly, where do you get the idea that there is still a "Yhwh" on earth at this point of the narrative? As I read it he had left (18:33; 19:27) early enough to be back home to start the fireworks. This is a common feature of the "Yahwist" narratives that he comes "down" and "up" rather often (e.g. 11:5,8).