Biblical morals.

Anti-Christ

Just a few questions. If some of you base your moral standards on the bible, how do you know what is right and wrong? I ask because the morals in the bible change a lot.

nvrgnbk

Sex, BA.

The whole issue of marriage, incest, concubines, maidservants, ownership of women, etc.

Gopher

The standard for divorce changed.

In Old Testament times, Hebrew men could dismiss their wife for something unpleasing they found.

Jesus said that divorce was only permissible on account of fornication.

Dietary laws are another example. There were many foods the Hebrews were strictly prohibited from eating.

But Jesus said at Mark 7:18 "Whatever goes into the man from the outside can't defile him, because it doesn't go into his heart, but into his stomach, then into the sewer, thus making all foods clean...".

Brother Apostate

The whole issue of marriage, incest, concubines, maidservants, ownership of women, etc.

Of the issues you raise, all were allowed in order to fulfill His promise to Abraham, that his seed would be numerous, so Israel could be a mighty nation.

I concede that issues such as having multiple wives (Old Testament) versus the one man + one woman Christian ~~law~~ principle could be construed as morally different, however, there was a good reason for that difference (see above).

BA- edited to change "law" to "principle"

Anti-Christ

Examples?

What Gopher and Nvr said. And what do you think of slavery?

onacruse

There is a differentiation between morals, ethics, and laws.

Thus the seeming confusion in the Bible, as it reflects the variations, and conflicts, between these "accepted" standards.

As is also the case with the conflation of capitalism and democracy, or Islamism and unique righteousness, or Buddhism and ultimate consciousness.

Therefore:

I ask because the morals in the bible change a lot.

is because people change a lot.

Anti-Christ

I concede that issues such as having multiple wives (Old Testament) versus the one man + one woman Christian rule could be construed as morally different, however, there was a good reason for that difference (see above).

Were does it say in the NT that you can not have more then one wife?

Brother Apostate

Dietary laws aren't universal morals. They only applied to Israel.

Yes, it was necessary to clarify what is an acceptable grounds for divorce in the New Testament. The understanding that God "hates a divorcing" is part and parcel of both Testaments, however.

BA

Brother Apostate

And what do you think of slavery?

It was a means for individuals to survive.

BA

Biblical morals.

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