Hi DD,
I hope I didn't offend you with the phrase "dogmatic obsession," which was meant as . I couldn't help noticing, over the years, how you can attract a thread from the vicinity of Trinitarianism or predestinarianism into those topics...
As to wordplays, I count three occurrences of peirazô ktl. in Matthew:
- 4:1, to be tempted, peirasthènai.
- 4:3, the tempter, ho peirazôn.- 4:7, you shall not put to the test, ouk ekpeiraseis.
And three (different) in Luke:
- 4:2, being tempted, peirazomenos.
- 4:12, you shall not put to the test, ouk ekpeiraseis.- 4:13, having finished every temptation/test, suntelesas panta peirasmon.
The quotation about "tempting God" being part of the middle temptation in Matthew and the last one in Luke.
It is entirely possible that both texts, in different ways, suggest that "tempting the Son of God" amounts to "tempting God" -- although they don't state that explicitly, that was the point of my first reply to you.
But if this is the case what do they mean by that? Unlike John, Matthew and Luke never simply equate "the Son of God" with "God," in a static way as it were. But they both use the dynamic principle that what is done to one (as the sent representative, for instance) is done to the other (as the sender, for instance) (Matthew 8:40ff; 18:5; 25:31ff; Luke 9:48; 10:16 etc.). And this is not exclusive of Jesus and God, it applies to the disciple or to an anonymous child.
Now the Fourth Gospel admittedly goes further into static declarations of identity (the Word was God, being one, mutual indwelling, etc.). But (1) you cannot simply retroject the Johannine notions onto the other Gospels and (2) you must not forget that in the Fourth Gospel itself the same static declarations extend to the believers, so that they hardly suit the criterium of exclusivity implied (coming back to the thread topic) by the notion of blasphemy... which, by the way, is precisely the point of Jesus' reply in John: isn't something similar said in "your Law," about others?