oldflame....No one is claiming that "man" had the same intelligence and cognitive ability for "millions of years". H. sapiens is only dated back to 200,000 years ago and the hominids that preceded modern man for "millions of years" had much smaller brains and less complex cognitive ability. Some argue that archaic H. sapiens still lacked some adaptations that arose ca. 60,000 years ago that gave rise to an explosion of technological change and artistic expression. Boats and painting existed about 40,000 years ago. Agriculture, animal husbandry, and the first cities arose about 10,000 years ago. And the wheel and writing arose only about 5,000 years ago. Technology is cumulative (building on earlier and unrelated developments, cf. James Burke's Connections on how this happens) and if it has been accelerating, developing faster and faster, it follows that the further back in time you go, the slower the rate of development was. The rate of technological change we have today, with the newest gadget and device on the market each year, is not at all representative with the entirety of human history, especially before the Industrial Revolution. Finally, what is the measure of man? If it is modern, Western technology, what about societies that have gotten along just fine for all these millennia without it? If the Australian aborigines had a hunter-gatherer lifestyle that worked just fine for them for many millennia, why couldn't it work for people living many millennia before them?