this is nuts.
im so confused by adversarial attitudes towards language experts. we wouldnt have ANY bible without the efforts of linguistic scholars. why do you feel you can just dismiss them whenever you disagree with them? since the existence of the modern bible hinges on linguistic scholarship, and since the endurance of the bible is an act of gods spirit according to 1 Pet 1:25, it follows that lingusitic scholars are being led by gods spirit. consider whether you would be fighting gods spirits by disagreeing with them before you are so quick to conclude bias. anyways, this is a topic im considering exploring separately. back to the one at hand.
your references to bible concordances are impressive. you seem to think that we can use a concordance to find a definition of a word different from the one most people use when translating the word in the bible. this is putting the cart before the horse. the meaning of the bible does not rely on concordances. quite the opposite. there are no ancient greek dictionaries that lexicographers used to compile their modern concordances. they can only rely on the way the words are USED in ancient literature and then compile definitions that cover the cases they find. this saves the time of looking up every use of word when it comes time to decide what it means in some given case, but essentially translators are still relying on nothing more than examples of use. its impossible by definition to take a concordance and use it to say that every instance of a word's use is inaccurate. the concordance was BASED on the words uses. in order to support your argument you have to show an EXAMPLE of the word being used in the way you suggest.
i am not schooled in ancient greek beyond the limited knowledge i have from WT publications, but i have learned several languages and it seems that taking a word apart into its composite particles, while useful, does not supercede the apparent meaning of the word as a whole. your very own concordance shows mee'te as 'neither,' yet you want to use the entries under 'mee' and 'te' seperately to show that its straightforward definition of mee'te is wrong, or at least incomplete. that seems very misleading. i know enough to know thats not how linguistics works. it also seems obvious that the 'te' particle merely carries the thought from a simple 'not' to a 'neither,' not from 'not' to 'not both.' im not even sure what you're claiming 'not both' means. if you were right about this, i dont see how we could ever understand ANYTHING in ancient literature, if the meanings were so elastic that a simple 'not' could mean 'not more than one.'
mox