Greetings to you all:
I have a question. I have asked it in a private discussion with a fundamentalist who cowardly ignored the whole premise of the thought and am hoping there is someone here who can address it.
I am aware of the fact that abortion is one hot button topic. It is not my intention to make this a debate about abortion. As far as I know "believers" tend to be strongly against abortion. They consider it the very worst of crimes taking the life of an innocent with no voice of it's own. Ok that view is established.
My question is that when God ordered the slaughter of entire races (apparently very *bad* people who deserved it by all accounts I've had explained) by "his people" I don't read anything about those women who are with child to be spared. Nowhere do I see anything about "kill everyone but those with child should be spared until the innocent child in the womb is born, then you can eliminate the wicked mother" or anything like that.
Today a person who is a Right to Lifer thinks any and all babies are innocents and should be spared no matter what the faith of the parents. They would fight to save the baby of Muslim, Atheist, or any other faith/un-faith. Would this not apply a few millenia ago? Weren't unborn children innocent in 500 bc as they are today?
Does this not make God a practicing (and highly successful I might add) abortionist?
Just a thought for the day.
Regards,
Julie