New definition of "prophesying" digs WT grave even deeper?

by hamsterbait 13 Replies latest jw friends

  • Narkissos
    Narkissos

    It is quite correct imo to say that "prophecy" in the Bible (as well as in the Ancient Near East or Greek cultures) doesn't consist essentially or even mainly in predicting the future. It is another thing to make it a simple equivalent of "teaching". Immediate, extraordinary, supernatural revelation (i.e. inspiration received in states of ecstasy, trance, dreams, visions, or through divination methods) is always involved in prophecy -- even though in the "later prophets" of the OT this becomes more of a literary device than a real-life phenomenon. Early Christian "prophesying" is clearly distinguished from "teaching" (with one's own mind, as Paul puts it) as one of the Holy Spirit charismata or pneumatika.

    It might be interesting to provide the exact context (and especially the NT "prooftexts") of the WT references to its "prophetic" activity. I wouldn't be surprised if they use the same texts, sometimes to refer to a "spiritual gift" that (they say) doesn't exist anymore, sometimes to an activity that still exists. (For instance, quoting 1 Corinthians 11:4 about a woman wearing a headscarf for prophesying -- which is supposed not to happen anymore -- and applying it to a "sister" teaching).

  • wobble
    wobble

    Did not those that struck our Lord while he was blindfolded say " prophecy,who WAS it who struck you" so in the Bible it must mean an ability to know, beyond what is normal. I see no evidence that the WT has,or ever had that ability. They can't even see what is normal,let alone beyond.

    Love

    Wobble

  • Narkissos
    Narkissos

    wobble,

    The 2nd paragraph of the entry "prophecy" in the Insight book quotes the same example about "prophecy" implying extraordinary knowledge although not about the future (which I think is correct):

    Illustrating the sense of the original words are these examples: When Ezekiel in a vision was told to "prophesy to the wind," he simply expressed God’s command to the wind. (Eze 37:9, 10) When individuals at Jesus’ trial covered him, slapped him, and then said, "Prophesy to us, you Christ. Who is it that struck you?" they were not calling for prediction but for Jesus to identify the slappers by divine revelation. (Mt 26:67, 68; Lu 22:63, 64) The Samaritan woman at the well recognized Jesus as "a prophet" because he revealed things about her past that he could not have known except by divine power. (Joh 4:17-19; compare Lu 7:39.) So, too, such Scriptural portions as Jesus’ Sermon on the Mount and his denunciation of the scribes and Pharisees (Mt 23:1-36) may properly be defined as prophecy, for these were an inspired ‘telling forth’ of God’s mind on matters, even as were the pronouncements by Isaiah, Jeremiah, and other earlier prophets.—Compare Isa 65:13-16 and Lu 6:20-25.

    The last sentence is more debatable imo, because Jesus is not described as "prophesying" in such instances just because he mentions "prophets". Otoh, it is true that the contents of the books of the later OT "Prophets" (aka "writing prophets") may favour a broader definition of "prophecy" as "speaking in God's name". Still, the notion of inspiration never completely disappears.

  • hamsterbait
    hamsterbait

    So it does not just mean setting dates to verses in the Bible. (A point that was conveniently sidestepped and IGNORED on Ninjas most entertaining thread.

    HB

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