Question for JW Lurkers: Did Jesus Pray Using the Name "Jehovah"?

by cabasilas 19 Replies latest watchtower bible

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  cabasilas

  A listing of prayers by Jesus in the New Testament can be found at this site:

  http://www.praylikethis.org.uk/theprayersofjesus.html

  (I can't say that the list is exhaustive, but I think it is at least representative.)

  I've compared the verses listed with the New World Translation and the name "Jehovah" does not appear in any of these verses.

  So, there is not one verse in the New Testament (Christian Greek Scriptures) that has Jesus uttering the name "Jehovah" in a prayer. If Jesus had meant to emphasize that his followers should pray using "Jehovah" in their prayers, then why didn't he do so?

  True, Jesus does pray about God's "name," but when doing so does not refer to a pronunciation like "Yahweh" or "Jehovah." Since Jesus did not utter "Jehovah" when referring to God's "name," doesn't it make more sense that Jesus is referring to God's character, authority or reputation? We often use the word "name" in such a sense. For example, we'll speak of someone "making a name for themselves." We've also heard the expression: "Open in the name of the law!" So, when Jesus prayed in John chapter 17 saying, "I have made your name manifest" he was basically saying "I have made your character manifest," not some pronunciation.

  Interestingly, the Watchtower referred to this metaphorical use of "name" in the May 1, 1973 Watchtower, page 259:

  WHAT GOD’S NAME MEANT TO JESUS
  
  God’s “name” is also important to Jesus Christ. Just before his death he prayed: “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world . . . watch over them on account of your own name which you have given me . . . And I have made your name known to them and will make it known.”—John 17:6, 11, 26.
  
  We are not to believe that when Jesus said, “I have made your name known” or “manifest,” he referred to only the pronunciation of the divine name. His listeners were Jews who, reportedly with the exception of the high priest, did not know the pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton, the four Hebrew letters making up the name. Then, how did Jesus, by more than pronouncing the name correctly, ‘make God’s name known’ to the apostles? Note the answer given by one noted Bible commentator:
  
  “The word name [in John 17] includes the attributes, or character of God. Jesus had made known his character, his law, his will, his plan of mercy. Or in other words, he had revealed God to them. The word name is often used to designate the person.”—Notes, Explanatory and Practical, on the Gospels by Albert Barnes (1846).
  
  So, as Jesus ‘explained the Father’ by his own entire perfect life course on earth, he was really ‘making God’s name known.’ He demonstrated that he spoke with God’s full backing and authority. Jesus could therefore say: “He that has seen me has seen the Father also.” God’s “name” thus took on greater meaning to his early followers. Accordingly, an appreciation of it and the Personality that it stood for should be reflected in every aspect of the Christian’s life.—John 14:9; 1:18; 5:19, 30; Matt. 11:27.

  So, again, is there a single verse in the New Testament where Jesus prays using the name "Jehovah" in his prayer?
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  OUTLAW

  I like the Subject.....You really should take another approach though.....Beating up on Lurkers is not Cool.....LOL!!......The name"Jehovah" is a Translation mistake made by a 14th century Catholic Monk.....Before the 14th century,the name Jehovah did not exist..................Jesus would have never used the name Jehovah......How could he?......It`s a Catholic translation mistake..Made in the 14th Century................LOL!!...OUTLAW
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  cabasilas

  For the purposes of this thread, I won't quibble about whether it's "Yahweh" or "Jehovah."

  Whatever pronunciation one uses....did the prayers of Jesus as recorded in the New Testament contain either "Jehovah" or "Yahweh"?

  And, my apologies if I seemed to be beating up on lurkers. :)
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  OUTLAW

  Cabasilas..You`ve already made a Point,of the name Jehovah.....Bait and switch won`t work here.....Yahweh won`t work..The subject is Jehovah.......................I`m feeling generous......Lets toss Yahweh in................No one has ever found a provable spelling of the most holy,of holiest names..EVER!!.....Thats a simple fact.....................................LOL!!...OUTLAW
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  allelsefails

  Funny I've thought about that. Name can mean many things yeah? .......... I think it is funny to call Jehovah a translation mistake. The English language is a translation mistake between the Celts, Saxons, and God knows who else throwing in native languages, German, Latin, French, Spainish, hell anything they can find. Put it in a blender and you get = English. Jesus was never called Jesus either. Yeshua - Hebrew, Iesous - Greek , Iesus in Latin. The letter J did not exist before the 14th century. Translations are translations - meaningless use of words.
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  OUTLAW

  The name Jehovah,actually is a translation mistake...............The Letter "J" does appear in the 14th century........The same time the name Jehovah was mis-translated .....................StrawMan Arguements don`t last long on JWN....................................LOL!!...OUTLAW
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  Doug Mason

  When the Hebrews spoke of a person's "name" they were not thinking of a handle that provides an identification.
  
  Instead, they meant the very essence of that individual. Much like we might use "name" to mean "reputation", but even more so. A name was the very being of that individual. Hence it was important for a person's name to be changed when they had a life-changing experience (Simon to Peter, Saul to Paul, and so on and on).
  
  Thus when Jesus revealed his Father's name, he was revealing the very nature of God.
  
  A study I wrote on the subject is available at:
  
  http://au.geocities.com/doug_mason1940/Witnessing_the_Name.pdf
  
  Doug
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  OUTLAW

  Doug Mason..You have verification of Gods Name?.......To date..To one has ever found proof of the actual name.......If you can prove this,you are a Very Rich Man!!................Let me know how it goes................................LOL!!...OUTLAW
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  betterdaze

  Since Jesus did not utter "Jehovah" when referring to God's "name," doesn't it make more sense that Jesus is referring to God's character, authority or reputation?

  Yes. Jesus always spoke of the Father, NEVER the bloodthirsty Hebrew war diety YHWH / Jehovah. His "name" means the Father's reputation. Period.
  
  This is why the "God is love" concept can never fit with YHWH / Jehovah "god" of the Hebrews, no matter how much Christians try to conflate or superimpose characters.
  
  Jesus rejected that ancient hateful diety, as well as his contemporary Jews, especially the Pharisees and their spiritual slaves, who worshipped and were bound to YHWH.
  
  YHWH was never the same as the Father. Jesus rejected YHWH worship, rebelled against the YHWH worshippers, and for that he was put to death.
  
  ~Sue
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  allelsefails

  I hope you don't think I was making a stawman arguement? I could give rat's a**. I think the English language is a mess. Obviously the "J" existed in the fourteenth century, but not in any language before that time. Everything with a J is a mistake in pronunciation! New languages are always "mistakes" compared to the original. ..........

  If there is a God with a name ..... Yahweh, Jehovah. So what? That's my point. I think the whole Jehovah issue is a stawman arguement. The fact that Jesus didn't use any name in his prayers to The Father I think is a relevant scriptural thought though.